38-101. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-101 to 38-1,148 and the following practice acts shall be known and may be cited as the Uniform Credentialing Act:

(1) The Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act;

(2) The Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act;

(3) The Athletic Training Practice Act;

(4) The Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act;

(5) The Behavior Analyst Practice Act;

(6) The Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act;

(7) The Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act;

(8) The Chiropractic Practice Act;

(9) The Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act;

(10) The Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(11) The Dentistry Practice Act;

(12) The Dialysis Patient Care Technician Registration Act;

(13) The Emergency Medical Services Practice Act;

(14) The Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act;

(15) The Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act;

(16) The Genetic Counseling Practice Act;

(17) The Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act;

(18) The Licensed Practical Nurse-Certified Practice Act until November 1, 2017;

(19) The Massage Therapy Practice Act;

(20) The Medical Nutrition Therapy Practice Act;

(21) The Medical Radiography Practice Act;

(22) The Medicine and Surgery Practice Act;

(23) The Mental Health Practice Act;

(24) The Nurse Practice Act;

(25) The Nurse Practitioner Practice Act;

(26) The Nursing Home Administrator Practice Act;

(27) The Occupational Therapy Practice Act;

(28) The Optometry Practice Act;

(29) The Perfusion Practice Act;

(30) The Pharmacy Practice Act;

(31) The Physical Therapy Practice Act;

(32) The Podiatry Practice Act;

(33) The Psychology Practice Act;

(34) The Respiratory Care Practice Act;

(35) The Surgical First Assistant Practice Act; and

(36) The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act.

If there is any conflict between any provision of sections 38-101 to 38-1,148 and any provision of a practice act, the provision of the practice act shall prevail except as otherwise specifically provided in section 38-129.02.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 1, p. 454; C.S.1929, § 71-101; R.S.1943, § 71-101; Laws 1972, LB 1067, § 1;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 5;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 2;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 23;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 8;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 15;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 1;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 3;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 12;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 4;    Laws 1989, LB 323, § 2;    Laws 1989, LB 344, § 4;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 4; Laws 1993, LB 48, § 1;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 3;    Laws 1993, LB 429, § 1;    Laws 1993, LB 536, § 43;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 2;    Laws 1994, LB 900, § 1;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 9;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 2;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 10;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 371;    Laws 1997, LB 622, § 77;    Laws 1999, LB 178, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 366, § 7;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 7;    Laws 2001, LB 25, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 19;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 4;    Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 11;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 13;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 8;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 103;    Laws 2005, LB 306, § 1;    Laws 2006, LB 994, § 79;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-101; Laws 2007, LB236, § 1;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 23;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 58;    Laws 2007, LB296, § 296;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 1;    Laws 2007, LB481, § 1;    Laws 2008, LB928, § 2;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 5;    Laws 2012, LB831, § 26;    Laws 2015, LB264, § 1;    Laws 2016, LB721, § 18;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 1;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 28;    Laws 2017, LB255, § 8;    Laws 2017, LB417, § 3;    Laws 2018, LB701, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB29, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB556, § 1;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 41;    Laws 2021, LB390, § 1;    Laws 2021, LB583, § 3;    Laws 2022, LB752, § 5;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 15.    


Cross References

38-102. Legislative findings.

The Legislature recognizes the need for regulation of persons and businesses providing health and health-related services and environmental services. It is the intent of the Legislature to provide for such regulation through the Uniform Credentialing Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 2.    


38-103. Purposes of act.

The purposes of the Uniform Credentialing Act are (1) to protect the public health, safety, and welfare by (a) providing for the credentialing of persons and businesses that provide health and health-related services and environmental services which are made subject to the act and (b) the development, establishment, and enforcement of standards for such services and (2) to provide for the efficient, adequate, and safe practice of such persons and businesses.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 3.    


38-104. Existing rules, regulations, licenses, certificates, and legal and administrative proceedings; how treated.

(1) All rules and regulations adopted prior to December 1, 2008, under the Uniform Licensing Law or other statutes amended or repealed by Laws 2007, LB 463, shall continue to be effective under the Uniform Credentialing Act to the extent not in conflict with the act.

(2) All licenses, certificates, registrations, permits, seals, practice agreements, or other forms of approval issued prior to December 1, 2008, in accordance with the Uniform Licensing Law or other statutes amended or repealed by Laws 2007, LB 463, shall remain valid as issued for purposes of the Uniform Credentialing Act unless revoked or otherwise terminated by law.

(3) Any suit, action, or other proceeding, judicial or administrative, which was lawfully commenced prior to December 1, 2008, under the Uniform Licensing Law or other statutes amended or repealed by Laws 2007, LB 463, shall be subject to the provisions of the Uniform Licensing Law or such other statutes as they existed prior to December 1, 2008.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 4.    


38-105. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-106 to 38-120.03 apply.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 5;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 29;    Laws 2018, LB701, § 2;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 2.    


38-106. Active addiction, defined.

Active addiction means current physical or psychological dependence on alcohol or a substance, which dependence develops following the use of alcohol or a substance on a periodic or continuing basis.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 6.    


38-107. Alcohol or substance abuse, defined.

Alcohol or substance abuse means a maladaptive pattern of alcohol or substance use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress as manifested by one or more of the following occurring at any time during the same twelve-month period:

(1) Recurrent alcohol or substance use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or home;

(2) Recurrent alcohol or substance use in situations in which it is physically hazardous;

(3) Recurrent legal problems related to alcohol or substance use; or

(4) Continued alcohol or substance use despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems caused or exacerbated by the effects of the alcohol or substance use.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 7.    


38-108. Board, defined; no board established by statute; effect.

Board means one of the boards appointed by the State Board of Health pursuant to section 38-158 or appointed by the Governor pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act. For professions for which there is no board established by statute, the duties normally carried out by a board are the responsibility of the department.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 8;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 42.    


Cross References

38-109. Business, defined.

Business means a person engaged in providing services listed in subsection (3) of section 38-121.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 9.    


38-110. Certificate, defined.

Certificate means an authorization issued by the department that gives a person the right to use a protected title that only a person who has met specific requirements may use.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 10.    


38-111. Consumer, defined.

Consumer means a person receiving health or health-related services or environmental services and includes a patient, client, resident, customer, or person with a similar designation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 11.    


38-112. Course of study, defined.

Course of study means a program of instruction necessary to obtain a credential meeting the requirements set out for each profession in the appropriate practice act and rules and regulations and includes a college, a professional school, a vocational school, hours of training, or a program of instruction with a similar designation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 12.    


38-113. Credential, defined.

Credential means a license, certificate, or registration.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 13.    


38-114. Department, defined.

Department means the Division of Public Health of the Department of Health and Human Services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 14.    


38-115. Dependence, defined.

Dependence means a maladaptive pattern of alcohol or substance use, leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, as manifested by three or more of the following occurring at any time in the same twelve-month period:

(1) Tolerance as defined by either of the following:

(a) A need for markedly increased amounts of alcohol or the substance to achieve intoxication or desired effect; or

(b) A markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount of alcohol or the substance;

(2) Withdrawal as manifested by either of the following:

(a) The characteristic withdrawal syndrome for alcohol or the substance as referred to in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders — Fourth Edition, published by the American Psychiatric Association; or

(b) Alcohol or the same substance or a closely related substance is taken to relieve or avoid withdrawal symptoms;

(3) Alcohol or the substance is often taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended;

(4) A persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down or control alcohol or substance use;

(5) A great deal of time is spent in activities necessary to obtain alcohol or the substance, to use alcohol or the substance, or to recover from the effects of use of alcohol or the substance;

(6) Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of alcohol or substance use; or

(7) Alcohol or substance use continues despite knowledge of having had a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem that was likely to have been caused or exacerbated by alcohol or the substance.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 15.    


38-116. Director, defined.

Director means the Director of Public Health of the Division of Public Health or his or her designee.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 16.    


38-117. Inactive credential, defined.

Inactive credential means a credential which the credential holder has voluntarily placed on inactive status and by which action has terminated the right to practice or represent himself or herself as having an active credential.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 17.    


38-117.01. Low-income individual, defined.

Low-income individual means an individual enrolled in a state or federal public assistance program, including, but not limited to, the medical assistance program established pursuant to the Medical Assistance Act, the federal Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or the federal Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program, or whose household adjusted gross income is below one hundred thirty percent of the federal income poverty guideline or a higher threshold to be set by the Licensure Unit of the Division of Public Health of the Department of Health and Human Services.

Source:Laws 2019, LB112, § 3.    


Cross References

38-117.02. Military families, defined.

Military families means active duty service members in the armed services of the United States, military spouses, honorably discharged veterans of the armed services of the United States, spouses of such honorably discharged veterans, and unremarried surviving spouses of deceased service members of the armed services of the United States.

Source:Laws 2019, LB112, § 4.    


38-118. License, defined.

License means an authorization issued by the department to an individual to engage in a profession or to a business to provide services which would otherwise be unlawful in this state in the absence of such authorization.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 18.    


38-118.01. Military spouse, defined.

Military spouse means the spouse of an active duty service member in the armed forces of the United States.

Source:Laws 2017, LB88, § 30;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 5.    


38-119. Profession, defined.

Profession means any profession or occupation named in subsection (1) or (2) of section 38-121.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 19.    


38-120. Registry, defined.

Registry means a list of persons who offer a specified service or activity.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 20.    


38-120.01. Telehealth, defined.

Telehealth means the use of medical information electronically exchanged from one site to another, whether synchronously or asynchronously, to aid a credential holder in the diagnosis or treatment of a patient. Telehealth includes services originating from a patient's home or any other location where such patient is located, asynchronous services involving the acquisition and storage of medical information at one site that is then forwarded to or retrieved by a credential holder at another site for medical evaluation, and telemonitoring.

Source:Laws 2018, LB701, § 3.    


38-120.02. Telemonitoring, defined.

Telemonitoring means the remote monitoring of a patient's vital signs, biometric data, or subjective data by a monitoring device which transmits such data electronically to a credential holder for analysis and storage.

Source:Laws 2018, LB701, § 4.    


38-120.03. Young worker, defined.

Young worker means (1) for an initial credential under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, except for a body art license, an applicant who is between the ages of seventeen and twenty-five years or (2) for an initial credential issued under any other provision of the Uniform Credentialing Act, including a body art license, an applicant who is between the ages of eighteen and twenty-five years.

Source:Laws 2019, LB112, § 6.    


Cross References

38-121. Practices; credential required.

(1) No individual shall engage in the following practices unless such individual has obtained a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act:

(a) Acupuncture;

(b) Advanced practice nursing;

(c) Alcohol and drug counseling;

(d) Asbestos abatement, inspection, project design, and training;

(e) Athletic training;

(f) Audiology;

(g) Speech-language pathology;

(h) Beginning one year after September 2, 2023, behavior analysis;

(i) Body art;

(j) Chiropractic;

(k) Cosmetology;

(l) Dentistry;

(m) Dental hygiene;

(n) Electrology;

(o) Emergency medical services;

(p) Esthetics;

(q) Funeral directing and embalming;

(r) Genetic counseling;

(s) Hearing instrument dispensing and fitting;

(t) Lead-based paint abatement, inspection, project design, and training;

(u) Licensed practical nurse-certified until November 1, 2017;

(v) Massage therapy;

(w) Medical nutrition therapy;

(x) Medical radiography;

(y) Medicine and surgery;

(z) Mental health practice;

(aa) Nail technology;

(bb) Nursing;

(cc) Nursing home administration;

(dd) Occupational therapy;

(ee) Optometry;

(ff) Osteopathy;

(gg) Perfusion;

(hh) Pharmacy;

(ii) Physical therapy;

(jj) Podiatry;

(kk) Psychology;

(ll) Radon detection, measurement, and mitigation;

(mm) Respiratory care;

(nn) Surgical assisting; and

(oo) Veterinary medicine and surgery.

(2) No individual shall hold himself or herself out as any of the following until such individual has obtained a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act for that purpose:

(a) Registered environmental health specialist;

(b) Certified marriage and family therapist;

(c) Certified professional counselor;

(d) Certified art therapist;

(e) Social worker; or

(f) Dialysis patient care technician.

(3) No business shall operate for the provision of any of the following services unless such business has obtained a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act:

(a) Body art;

(b) Cosmetology;

(c) Emergency medical services;

(d) Esthetics;

(e) Funeral directing and embalming;

(f) Massage therapy; or

(g) Nail technology.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 2, p. 455; C.S.1929, § 71-201; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 27, p. 529; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-201; R.S.1943, § 71-102; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 5, p. 1076; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 3, p. 1051; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 1;    Laws 1978, LB 406, § 1;    Laws 1980, LB 94, § 2; Laws 1984, LB 481, § 6;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 1;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 3;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 24;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 9;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 16;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 13;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 5;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 4;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 3;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 11;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 372;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 2;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 104;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-102; Laws 2007, LB236, § 2;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 59;    Laws 2007, LB296, § 297;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 21;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 6;    Laws 2012, LB831, § 27;    Laws 2016, LB721, § 19;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 31;    Laws 2017, LB255, § 9;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 43;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 17;    Laws 2024, LB605, § 1.    
Operative Date: January 1, 2025


Annotations

38-122. Credential; form.

Every initial credential to practice a profession or engage in a business shall be in the form of a document under the name of the department.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 5, p. 455; C.S.1929, § 71-204; R.S.1943, § 71-105; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 12;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 374;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-105; Laws 2007, LB296, § 299;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 22;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 4.    


38-123. Record of credentials issued under act; department; duties; contents.

(1) The department shall establish and maintain a record of all credentials issued pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act. The record shall contain identifying information for each credential holder and the credential issued pursuant to the act.

(2) For individual credential holders engaged in a profession:

(a) The record information shall include:

(i) The name, date and place of birth, and social security number;

(ii) The street, rural route, or post office address;

(iii) The school and date of graduation;

(iv) The name of examination, date of examination, and ratings or grades received, if any;

(v) The type of credential issued, the date the credential was issued, the identifying name and number assigned to the credential, and the basis on which the credential was issued;

(vi) The status of the credential; and

(vii) A description of any disciplinary action against the credential, including, but not limited to, the type of disciplinary action, the effective date of the disciplinary action, and a description of the basis for any such disciplinary action;

(b) The record may contain any additional information the department deems appropriate to advance or support the purpose of the Uniform Credentialing Act;

(c) The record may be maintained in computer files or paper copies and may be stored on microfilm or in similar form; and

(d) The record is a public record, except that social security numbers shall not be public information but may be shared as specified in subsection (5) of section 38-130.

(3) For credential holders engaged in a business:

(a) The record information shall include:

(i) The full name and address of the business;

(ii) The type of credential issued, the date the credential was issued, the identifying name and number assigned to the credential, and the basis on which the credential was issued;

(iii) The status of the credential; and

(iv) A description of any disciplinary action against the credential, including, but not limited to, the type of disciplinary action, the effective date of the disciplinary action, and a description of the basis for any such disciplinary action;

(b) The record may contain any additional information the department deems appropriate to advance or support the purpose of the Uniform Credentialing Act;

(c) The record may be maintained in computer files or paper copies and may be stored on microfilm or in similar form; and

(d) The record is a public record.

(4) Except as otherwise specifically provided, if the department is required to provide notice or notify an applicant or credential holder under the Uniform Credentialing Act, such requirements shall be satisfied by sending a notice to such applicant or credential holder at his or her last address of record.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 23;    Laws 2017, LB417, § 4.    


38-124. Credential holder's advertisement; contents; credential; availability; identity of profession or business.

(1) Any credential holder's advertisement for health care services shall identify the type of credential or credentials held by the credential holder pursuant to the definitions, titles, and abbreviations authorized under the practice act applicable to his or her credential or credentials or the examination designations required for a credential under the practice act applicable to his or her credential or credentials. The advertisement shall not include deceptive or misleading information and shall not include any affirmative communication or representation that misstates, falsely describes, or falsely represents the skills, training, expertise, education, board certification, or credential or credentials of the credential holder.

(2) Every person credentialed under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall make his or her current credential available upon request. The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, if any, shall determine how a consumer will be able to identify a credential holder. The method of identification shall be clear and easily accessed and used by the consumer. All signs, announcements, stationery, and advertisements of persons credentialed under the act shall identify the profession or business for which the credential is held.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 7, p. 456; C.S.1929, § 71-206; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 28, p. 529; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-206; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 2, p. 539; R.S.1943, § 71-107; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 6, p. 1076; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 4, p. 1051; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 2;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 2;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 28;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 20;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 14;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 6;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 5;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 4;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 14;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 12;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 10;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 105;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-107; Laws 2007, LB236, § 3;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 24;    Laws 2015, LB452, § 1.    


38-125. Certification and verification of credentials.

(1) Upon request and payment of the required fee, the department shall provide certification of a credential which shall include a certified statement that provides information regarding the basis on which a credential was issued, the date of issuance, and whether disciplinary action has been taken against the credential.

(2) Upon request and payment of the required fee, the department shall provide verification of a credential which shall include written confirmation as to whether a credential is valid at the time the request is made.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 44, p. 465; C.S.1929, § 71-506; R.S.1943, § 71-145; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 44;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 36;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 24;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 381;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 19;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-145; Laws 2007, LB463, § 25.    


38-126. Rules and regulations; board and department; adopt.

To protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public and to insure to the greatest extent possible the efficient, adequate, and safe practice of health services, health-related services, and environmental services:

(1)(a) The appropriate board may adopt rules and regulations to:

(i) Specify minimum standards required for a credential, including education, experience, and eligibility for taking the credentialing examination, specify methods to meet the minimum standards through military service as provided in section 38-1,141, and on or before December 15, 2017, specify standards and procedures for issuance of temporary credentials for military spouses as provided in section 38-129.01;

(ii) Designate credentialing examinations, specify the passing score on credentialing examinations, and specify standards, if any, for accepting examination results from other jurisdictions;

(iii) Set continuing competency requirements in conformance with section 38-145;

(iv) Set standards for waiver of continuing competency requirements in conformance with section 38-146;

(v) Set standards for courses of study; and

(vi) Specify acts in addition to those set out in section 38-179 that constitute unprofessional conduct; and

(b) The department shall promulgate and enforce such rules and regulations;

(2) For professions or businesses that do not have a board created by statute:

(a) The department may adopt, promulgate, and enforce such rules and regulations; and

(b) The department shall carry out any statutory powers and duties of the board;

(3) The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, if any, may adopt, promulgate, and enforce rules and regulations for the respective profession, other than those specified in subdivision (1) of this section, to carry out the Uniform Credentialing Act; and

(4) The department may adopt, promulgate, and enforce rules and regulations with general applicability to carry out the Uniform Credentialing Act.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 68, p. 472; C.S.1929, § 71-902; R.S.1943, § 71-169; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 401;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-169; Laws 2007, LB296, § 321;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 26;    Laws 2015, LB264, § 2;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 32.    


38-127. Statutes, rules, and regulations; availability; duty of department.

The department shall have available for each profession and business regulated under the Uniform Credentialing Act the applicable statutes, rules, and regulations relative to the credentials for the appropriate profession or business.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 69, p. 472; C.S.1929, § 71-903; R.S.1943, § 71-170; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 75;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 67;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 51;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 402;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 57;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-170; Laws 2007, LB463, § 27.    


38-128. Legislative intent; department review of credentialed professions and businesses.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that quality health care services and human services be provided to the public and basic standards be developed to protect the public health and safety and that professions be regulated by the state only when it is demonstrated that such regulation is in the best interests of the public.

(2) The department shall periodically review each credentialed profession and business to determine if continued credentialing is needed to protect the public.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 828, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,343; Laws 2007, LB463, § 28.    


38-129. Issuance of credential; qualifications.

(1) No individual shall be issued a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act until he or she has furnished satisfactory evidence to the department that he or she is of good character and has attained the age of nineteen years except as otherwise specifically provided by statute, rule, or regulation.

(2) A credential may only be issued to (a) a citizen of the United States, (b) an alien lawfully admitted into the United States who is eligible for a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act, (c) a nonimmigrant lawfully present in the United States who is eligible for a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act, or (d) a person who submits (i) an unexpired employment authorization document issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security, Form I-766, and (ii) documentation issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security, the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, or any other federal agency, such as one of the types of Form I-797 used by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, demonstrating that such person is described in section 202(c)(2)(B)(i) through (x) of the federal REAL ID Act of 2005, Public Law 109-13. Such credential shall be valid only for the period of time during which such person's employment authorization document is valid.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 3, p. 455; C.S.1929, § 71-202; R.S.1943, § 71-103; Laws 1969, c. 560, § 1, p. 2278; Laws 1974, LB 811, § 6;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 25;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 17;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 2;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 10;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-103; Laws 2007, LB463, § 29;    Laws 2011, LB225, § 1;    Laws 2016, LB947, § 3;    Laws 2020, LB944, § 4.    


38-129.01. Temporary credential to military spouse; issuance; period valid.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, shall issue a temporary credential to a military spouse who complies with and meets the requirements of this section pending issuance of the applicable credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act. This section shall not apply to a license to practice dentistry, including a resident license under section 38-1123.

(2) A military spouse shall submit the following with his or her application for the applicable credential:

(a) A copy of his or her military dependent identification card which identifies him or her as the spouse of an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces;

(b) A copy of his or her spouse's military orders reflecting an active-duty assignment in Nebraska;

(c) A copy of his or her credential from another jurisdiction and the applicable statutes, rules, and regulations governing the credential; and

(d) A copy of his or her fingerprints for a criminal background check if required under section 38-131.

(3) If the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, determines that the applicant is the spouse of an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces who is assigned to a duty station in Nebraska, holds a valid credential in another jurisdiction which has similar standards for the profession to the Uniform Credentialing Act and the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act, and has submitted fingerprints for a criminal background check if required under section 38-131, the department shall issue a temporary credential to the applicant. The applicant shall not be required to pay any fees pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act for the temporary credential or the initial regular credential except the actual cost of the fingerprinting and criminal background check for an initial license under section 38-131.

(4) A temporary credential issued under this section shall be valid until the application for the regular credential is approved or rejected, not to exceed one year.

Source:Laws 2017, LB88, § 33;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 7;    Laws 2021, LB390, § 2;    Laws 2024, LB834, § 1.    
Effective Date: July 19, 2024


38-129.02. Credential; additional method of issuance based on reciprocity; eligibility; requirements; applicability.

(1) This section provides an additional method of issuing a credential based on reciprocity and is supplemental to the methods of credentialing found in the various practice acts within the Uniform Credentialing Act. Any person required to be credentialed under any of the various practice acts who meets the requirements of this section shall be issued a credential subject to the provisions of this section.

(2) A person who has a credential that is current and valid in another state, a territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may apply to the department for the equivalent credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act. The department, with the recommendation of the board with jurisdiction over the equivalent credential, shall determine the appropriate level of credential for which the applicant qualifies under this section. The department shall determine the documentation required to comply with subsection (3) of this section. The department shall issue the credential if the applicant meets the requirements of subsections (3) and (4) of this section and section 38-129 and submits the appropriate fees for issuance of the credential, including fees for a criminal background check if required for the profession. A credential issued under this section shall not be valid for purposes of an interstate compact or for reciprocity provisions of any practice act under the Uniform Credentialing Act.

(3) The applicant shall provide documentation of the following:

(a) The credential held in the other state, territory, or District of Columbia, the level of such credential, and the profession for which credentialed;

(b) Such credential is valid and current and has been valid for at least one year;

(c) Educational requirements;

(d) The minimum work experience and clinical supervision requirements, if any, required for such credential and verification of the applicant's completion of such requirements;

(e) The passage of an examination for such credential if such passage is required to obtain the credential in the other jurisdiction;

(f) Such credential is not and has not been subject to revocation or any other disciplinary action or voluntarily surrendered while the applicant was under investigation for unprofessional conduct or any other conduct which would be subject to section 38-178 if the conduct occurred in Nebraska;

(g) Such credential has not been subject to disciplinary action. If another jurisdiction has taken disciplinary action against the applicant on any credential the applicant has held, the appropriate board under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall determine if the cause for the disciplinary action was corrected and the matter resolved. If the matter has not been resolved, the applicant is not eligible for a credential under this section until the matter is resolved; and

(h) Receipt of a passing score on a credentialing examination specific to the laws of Nebraska if required by the appropriate board under the Uniform Credentialing Act.

(4) An applicant who obtains a credential upon compliance with subsections (2) and (3) of this section shall establish residency in Nebraska within one hundred eighty days after the issuance of the credential and shall provide proof of residency in a manner and within the time period required by the department. The department shall automatically revoke the credential of any credential holder who fails to comply with this subsection.

(5) In addition to failure to submit the required documentation in subsection (3) of this section, an applicant shall not be eligible for a credential under this section if:

(a) The applicant had a credential revoked, subject to any other disciplinary action, or voluntarily surrendered due to an investigation in any jurisdiction for unprofessional conduct or any other conduct which would be subject to section 38-178 if the conduct occurred in Nebraska;

(b) The applicant has a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending before any jurisdiction that relates to unprofessional conduct or any other conduct which would be subject to section 38-178 if the conduct occurred in Nebraska. If the matter has not been resolved, the applicant is not eligible for a credential under this section until the matter is resolved; or

(c) The person has a disqualifying criminal history as determined by the appropriate board pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act and rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act.

(6) A person who holds a credential under this section shall be subject to the Uniform Credentialing Act and other laws of this state relating to the person's practice under the credential and shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the appropriate board.

(7) This section applies to credentials for:

(a) Professions governed by the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act, the Behavior Analyst Practice Act, the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, the Dentistry Practice Act, the Dialysis Patient Care Technician Registration Act, the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act, the Medical Nutrition Therapy Practice Act, the Medical Radiography Practice Act, the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act, the Optometry Practice Act, the Perfusion Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Psychology Practice Act, and the Surgical First Assistant Practice Act; and

(b) Physician assistants and acupuncturists credentialed pursuant to the Medicine and Surgery Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2021, LB390, § 3;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 18.    


Cross References

38-130. Credential; application; contents.

(1) An individual shall file an application for a credential to practice a profession with the department accompanied by the fee set pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act. The application may be submitted up to ninety days prior to the date of the applicant's graduation from the required course of study and shall contain:

(a) The legal name of the applicant;

(b) The date and place of birth of the applicant;

(c) The address of the applicant;

(d) The social security number of the applicant or the resident identification number of the applicant if the applicant is not a citizen of the United States and is otherwise eligible to be credentialed under section 38-129; and

(e) Any other information required by the department.

(2) A business shall file an application for a credential with the department accompanied by the fee set pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act. The application shall contain:

(a) The full name and address of the business;

(b) The full name and address of the owner of the business;

(c) The name of each person in control of the business;

(d) The social security number of the business if the applicant is a sole proprietorship; and

(e) Any other information required by the department.

(3) The applicant shall sign the application. If the applicant is a business, the application shall be signed by:

(a) The owner or owners if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, or a limited liability company that has only one member;

(b) Two of its members if the applicant is a limited liability company that has more than one member;

(c) Two of its officers if the applicant is a corporation;

(d) The head of the governmental unit having jurisdiction over the business if the applicant is a governmental unit; or

(e) If the applicant is not an entity described in subdivisions (a) through (d) of this subsection, the owner or owners or, if there is no owner, the chief executive officer or comparable official.

(4) Each credential holder under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall notify the department of any change to the address of record so that the department can update the record of the credential holder under section 38-123.

(5) Social security numbers obtained under this section shall not be public information but may be shared by the department for administrative purposes if necessary and only under appropriate circumstances to ensure against any unauthorized access to such information.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 8, p. 456; C.S.1929, § 71-207; R.S.1943, § 71-108; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 1;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 29;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 21;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 3;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 4;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 5; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 15;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 156;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-108; Laws 2007, LB463, § 30;    Laws 2024, LB932, § 3.    
Operative Date: July 19, 2024


38-131. Criminal background check; when required.

(1) An applicant for an initial license to practice as a registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse, a physical therapist, a physical therapy assistant, a psychologist, an advanced emergency medical technician, an emergency medical technician, an audiologist, a speech-language pathologist, a licensed independent mental health practitioner, an occupational therapist, an occupational therapy assistant, a dietitian, a certified social worker, a certified master social worker, a licensed clinical social worker, a paramedic, a physician, an osteopathic physician, a physician or osteopathic physician who is an applicant for a temporary educational permit, a physician or osteopathic physician who is an applicant for a temporary visiting faculty permit, a physician assistant, a dentist, an optometrist, a podiatrist, a veterinarian, an advanced practice registered nurse-nurse practitioner, an advanced practice registered nurse-certified nurse midwife, or an advanced practice registered nurse-certified registered nurse anesthetist shall be subject to a criminal background check. Except as provided in subsection (4) of this section, such an applicant for an initial license shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Nebraska State Patrol for a criminal history record information check. The applicant shall authorize release of the results of the national criminal history record information check by the Federal Bureau of Investigation to the department. The applicant shall pay the actual cost of the fingerprinting and criminal background check.

(2) The Nebraska State Patrol is authorized to submit the fingerprints of such applicants to the Federal Bureau of Investigation and to issue a report to the department that includes the criminal history record information concerning the applicant. The Nebraska State Patrol shall forward submitted fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history record information check. The Nebraska State Patrol shall issue a report to the department that includes the criminal history record information concerning the applicant.

(3) This section shall not apply to a dentist who is an applicant for a dental locum tenens under section 38-1122, to a physician or osteopathic physician who is an applicant for a physician locum tenens under section 38-2036, or to a veterinarian who is an applicant for a veterinarian locum tenens under section 38-3335.

(4) A physician or osteopathic physician who is an applicant for a temporary educational permit shall have ninety days from the issuance of the permit to comply with subsection (1) of this section and shall have such permit suspended after such ninety-day period if the criminal background check is not complete or revoked if the criminal background check reveals that the applicant was not qualified for the permit.

(5) The department and the Nebraska State Patrol may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations concerning costs associated with the fingerprinting and the national criminal history record information check.

(6) For purposes of interpretation by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the term department in this section means the Division of Public Health of the Department of Health and Human Services.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 306, § 2;    Laws 2005, LB 382, § 15;    Laws 2006, LB 833, § 1;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-104.01; Laws 2007, LB247, § 60;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 31;    Laws 2007, LB481, § 2;    Laws 2011, LB687, § 1;    Laws 2015, LB129, § 1;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 1;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 5;    Laws 2022, LB752, § 7;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 19;    Laws 2024, LB932, § 4;    Laws 2024, LB1214, § 1;    Laws 2024, LB1215, § 5.    

Note: The Revisor of Statutes has pursuant to section 49-769 correlated LB932, section 4, with LB1214, section 1, and LB1215, section 5, to reflect all amendments.

Note: Changes made by LB932 became operative January 1, 2025. Changes made by LB1214 became effective July 19, 2024. Changes made by LB1215 became operative January 1, 2025.


38-132. Examinations; application; fees.

Any person desiring to take an examination for credentialing purposes shall make application to the department or to the organization specified by the department prior to examination on a form provided by the department or such organization. Such application shall be accompanied by the examination fee and such documents and affidavits as are necessary to show the eligibility of the candidate to take such examination. All applications shall be in accordance with the rules and regulations of the department or such organization. When a national or standardized examination is required, the department may direct the applicant to apply directly to the organization administering the examination to take the examination.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 25, p. 460; C.S.1929, § 71-401; R.S.1943, § 71-125; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 14;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 36;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 28;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 13;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 13;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 2;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 13; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-125; Laws 2007, LB463, § 32.    


38-133. Approved courses of study; approval required.

The department shall maintain a list of approved courses of study for the professions which are regulated by the Uniform Credentialing Act. The appropriate board shall make recommendations relative thereto and shall approve the list for its profession. The department shall approve the list for a profession if there is no appropriate board. No course of study shall be approved without the formal action of the department or the appropriate board. Any course of study whose graduates or students desire to take the Nebraska examination shall supply the department with the necessary data to allow the board and the department to determine whether that course of study should be approved.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 28, p. 461; C.S.1929, § 71-404; R.S.1943, § 71-128; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 15;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 37;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 29;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 3;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 31;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-128; Laws 2007, LB463, § 33.    


38-134. Examinations; oral or practical; approval of national or other examination.

(1) The oral or practical work portion of any examination for a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act may be given by the members of the appropriate board, the department, or an organization approved by the appropriate board or the department if there is no board. The oral examination questions shall be limited to the practice of the profession.

(2) The appropriate board may approve any national or other examination to constitute part or all of the credentialing examination for any of the professions which are regulated by the Uniform Credentialing Act.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 33, p. 462; C.S.1929, § 71-409; R.S.1943, § 71-133; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 18;    Laws 1982, LB 449, § 1;    Laws 1982, LB 450, § 1;    Laws 1982, LB 448, § 1;    Laws 1984, LB 470, § 4;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 15;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 39;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 31;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 14;    Laws 1989, LB 489, § 1;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 6;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 35;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-133; Laws 2007, LB463, § 34.    


38-135. Examinations; time and place.

Examinations for credentialing shall be held on such dates and at such times and places as set by the department or the organization approved by the appropriate board or the department. Special examinations may be given at the expense of the applicant and administered by the department or the organization specified by the department.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 29, p. 461; C.S.1929, § 71-405; R.S.1943, § 71-129; Laws 1984, LB 470, § 3;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 14;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 4;    Laws 1996, LB 1108, § 7; Laws 1999, LB 828, § 32;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-129; Laws 2007, LB463, § 35.    


38-136. Examinations; passing score; reexaminations.

(1) In the absence of any specific requirement or provision relating to any particular profession:

(a) The appropriate board may specify the passing score on credentialing examinations;

(b) An examinee who fails a credentialing examination may retake the entire examination or the part failed upon payment of the cost of retaking the examination; and

(c) The department shall withhold from the credentialing fee submitted by an examinee the cost of any national examination used when an examinee fails a credentialing examination and shall return to the examinee the remainder of the credentialing fee collected subject to section 38-156, except that:

(i) If a state-administered jurisprudence portion of the credentialing examination was failed, the examinee may retake that portion without charge; and

(ii) If any component of a national examination was failed, the examinee shall be charged the cost for retaking such examination.

(2) A person who desires to take an examination but does not wish to receive a credential may take such examination by meeting the examination eligibility requirements and paying the cost of the examination.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 31, p. 462; C.S.1929, § 71-407; Laws 1939, c. 91, § 4, p. 394; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-407; R.S.1943, § 71-131; Laws 1969, c. 560, § 3, p. 2279; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 16;    Laws 1983, LB 476, § 4;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 14;    Laws 1985, LB 250, § 1;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 7;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 38;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 30;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 16;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 13;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 13;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 19;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 10;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 5;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 14; Laws 1993, LB 669, § 10;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 21;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 17;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 33;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 8;    Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 12;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 18;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 111;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-131; Laws 2007, LB481, § 3;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 36.    


38-137. Examinations; records maintained; eligibility.

(1) All questions, the answer key, and the examinees' answers connected with any examination for credentialing shall be maintained by the department, national organization, or testing service for a period of two years from the date of administration of the examination.

(2) When national examinations are accepted for credentialing, the department shall obtain from the national organization or testing service documentation that the examination development and maintenance process meets generally accepted standards for test development and maintenance.

(3) The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may:

(a) Specify credentialing examination application procedures;

(b) Provide for the review of procedures for the development of examinations;

(c) Provide for the administration of all or separate components of examinations; and

(d) Protect the security of the content of examination questions and answers.

(4) The appropriate board may specify eligibility for taking the credentialing examination. In determining such eligibility, the board shall consider the practices of other states but shall determine such eligibility standards based on the extent to which completion of a course of study prior to examination is necessary to assure that applicants for credentials meet minimum standards of proficiency and competency for the protection of the health and safety of the public.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 38, p. 463; C.S.1929, § 71-414; R.S.1943, § 71-138; Laws 1969, c. 560, § 4, p. 2280; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 10;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 29;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 42;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 34;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 22;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 14;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 7;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 16; Laws 1999, LB 828, § 36;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-138; Laws 2007, LB463, § 37.    


38-138. Inspection of business by department.

The department may inspect or provide for the inspection of any business credentialed or applying for a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act. The department shall issue an inspection report and provide a copy of the report to the business within ten working days after the completion of an inspection.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 38.    


38-139. Inspection of business by State Fire Marshal or local fire prevention personnel.

The department may request the State Fire Marshal to inspect any business credentialed or applying for a credential under the Uniform Credentialing Act for fire safety pursuant to section 81-502. The State Fire Marshal shall assess a fee for such inspection pursuant to section 81-505.01 payable by such business. The State Fire Marshal may delegate such authority to make such inspections to qualified local fire prevention personnel pursuant to section 81-502.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 39.    


38-140. Report of unauthorized practice or unauthorized operation of business; investigation; cease and desist order; violation; penalty.

Every business credentialed under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall report to the department the name of every person without a credential that he or she has reason to believe is engaged in practicing any profession or operating any business for which a credential is required by the Uniform Credentialing Act. The department may, along with other law enforcement agencies, investigate such reports or other complaints of unauthorized practice or unauthorized operation of a business. The director, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may issue an order to cease and desist the unauthorized practice of such profession or unauthorized operation of such business as a measure to obtain compliance with the applicable credentialing requirements by the person or business prior to referral of the matter to the Attorney General for action. For businesses that do not have a board, the department may issue such cease and desist orders. Practice of such profession or operation of such business without a credential after receiving a cease and desist order is a Class III felony.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 40;    Laws 2016, LB859, § 1.    


38-141. Inspector or investigator; appointment by department.

Whenever the department deems it necessary to appoint an inspector or investigator to assist it in performing its duty, the department may appoint a person who holds an active credential in the appropriate profession or any other qualified person who has been trained in investigational procedures and techniques to serve as such inspector or investigator.

Source:Laws 1953, c. 247, § 3, p. 850; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 13;    Laws 1996, LB 1108, § 6; Laws 1999, LB 828, § 30;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-124.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 41.    


38-142. Credential; expiration date; renewal; reinstatement; inactive status.

(1) The credential to practice a profession shall be renewed biennially upon request of the credentialed person and upon documentation of continuing competency pursuant to sections 38-145 and 38-146. The renewals provided for in this section shall be accomplished in such manner and on such date as the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may establish.

The request for renewal shall be accompanied by the renewal fee and include all information required by the department. Requests to renew licenses for licensed practical nurses, registered nurses, and advanced practice registered nurses shall include evidence that the licensee has registered with the electronic database utilized by the department for the purpose of providing the licensee with current license status and nursing workforce data collection. The renewal fee shall be paid not later than the date of the expiration of such credential, except that persons actively engaged in the military service of the United States, as defined in the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 501 et seq., as the act existed on January 1, 2007, shall not be required to pay the renewal fee.

(2) At least thirty days before the expiration of a credential, the department shall notify each credentialed person at his or her last address of record. If a credentialed person fails to notify the department of his or her desire to have his or her credential placed on inactive status upon its expiration, fails to meet the requirements for renewal on or before the date of expiration of his or her credential, or otherwise fails to renew his or her credential, it shall expire. When a person's credential expires, the right to represent himself or herself as a credentialed person and to practice the profession in which a credential is required shall terminate. Any credentialed person who fails to renew the credential by the expiration date and desires to resume practice of the profession shall apply to the department for reinstatement of the credential.

(3) When a person credentialed pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act desires to have his or her credential placed on inactive status, he or she shall notify the department of such desire in writing. The department shall notify the credentialed person in writing of the acceptance or denial of the request to allow the credential to be placed on inactive status. When the credential is placed on inactive status, the credentialed person shall not engage in the practice of such profession, but he or she may represent himself or herself as having an inactive credential. A credential may remain on inactive status for an indefinite period of time.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 10, p. 456; C.S.1929, § 71-209; Laws 1933, c. 122, § 1, p. 492; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 29, p. 529; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-209; Laws 1943, c. 151, § 1, p. 551; R.S.1943, § 71-110; Laws 1953, c. 238, § 2, p. 824; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 7, p. 1077; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 5, p. 1051; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 3;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 3;    Laws 1979, LB 428, § 1;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 8;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 4;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 4;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 30;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 22;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 4;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 10;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 5;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 7;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 15;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 6;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 1;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 4;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 5;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 16;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 3;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 13;    Laws 1997, LB 197, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 12;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 3;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 5;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 14;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 106;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-110; Laws 2007, LB236, § 4;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 42;    Laws 2024, LB1215, § 6.    
Operative Date: July 19, 2024


38-143. Credential to engage in business; renewal; procedure; notice of expiration.

(1) The credential to engage in a business shall be renewed biennially upon request of the credentialed business and completion of the renewal requirements. The renewals provided for in this section shall be accomplished in such manner and on such date as the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may establish. The request for renewal shall include all information required by the department and shall be accompanied by the renewal fee. Such fee shall be paid not later than the date of the expiration of such credential.

(2) At least thirty days before the expiration of a credential, the department shall notify each credentialed business at its last address of record. If a credentialed business fails to meet the renewal requirements on or before the date of expiration of the credential, the credential shall expire. When a credential expires, the right to operate the business shall terminate. A business which fails to renew its credential by the expiration date shall apply for and obtain another credential prior to operating the business.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 15;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 1;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 9;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-110.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 43.    


38-144. Credential; failure to pay fees; failure to meet continuing competency requirement; effect.

(1) The credential of any person who fails, by the expiration date of such credential, to pay the required renewal fee or to submit documentation of continuing competency shall automatically expire without further notice or hearing.

(2) The department shall refuse to renew after notice and opportunity for hearing, the credential of any person who fails, by the expiration date of such credential, to meet the applicable continuing competency requirement for renewal.

(3) Subsections (1) and (2) of this section shall not apply when the credential holder has given notification to the department that he or she desires to have his or her credential expire or be placed on inactive status upon expiration.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 48, p. 467; C.S.1929, § 71-603; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 12, p. 543; R.S.1943, § 71-149; Laws 1976, LB 877, § 2; Laws 1984, LB 481, § 19;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 47;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 39;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 17;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 18;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 28;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 10;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 20;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-149; Laws 2007, LB463, § 44.    


38-145. Continuing competency requirements; board; duties.

(1) The appropriate board shall establish continuing competency requirements for persons seeking renewal of a credential.

(2) The purposes of continuing competency requirements are to ensure (a) the maintenance by a credential holder of knowledge and skills necessary to competently practice his or her profession, (b) the utilization of new techniques based on scientific and clinical advances, and (c) the promotion of research to assure expansive and comprehensive services to the public.

(3) Each board shall consult with the department and the appropriate professional academies, professional societies, and professional associations in the development of such requirements.

(4)(a) For a profession for which there are no continuing education requirements on December 31, 2002, the requirements may include, but not be limited to, any one or a combination of the continuing competency activities listed in subsection (5) of this section.

(b) For a profession for which there are continuing education requirements on December 31, 2002, continuing education is sufficient to meet continuing competency requirements. The requirements may also include, but not be limited to, any one or a combination of the continuing competency activities listed in subdivisions (5)(b) through (5)(p) of this section which a credential holder may select as an alternative to continuing education.

(5) Continuing competency activities may include, but not be limited to, any one or a combination of the following:

(a) Continuing education;

(b) Clinical privileging in an ambulatory surgical center or hospital as defined in section 71-405 or 71-419;

(c) Board certification in a clinical specialty area;

(d) Professional certification;

(e) Self-assessment;

(f) Peer review or evaluation;

(g) Professional portfolio;

(h) Practical demonstration;

(i) Audit;

(j) Exit interviews with consumers;

(k) Outcome documentation;

(l) Testing;

(m) Refresher courses;

(n) Inservice training;

(o) Practice requirement; or

(p) Any other similar modalities.

(6) Beginning with the first license renewal period which begins on or after October 1, 2018, the continuing competency requirements for a nurse midwife, dentist, physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, podiatrist, and veterinarian who prescribes controlled substances shall include at least three hours of continuing education biennially regarding prescribing opiates as defined in section 28-401. The continuing education may include, but is not limited to, education regarding prescribing and administering opiates, the risks and indicators regarding development of addiction to opiates, and emergency opiate situations. One-half hour of the three hours of continuing education shall cover the prescription drug monitoring program described in sections 71-2454 to 71-2456. This subsection terminates on January 1, 2029.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 14; Laws 1984, LB 481, § 21;    Laws 1985, LB 250, § 4;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 62;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 54;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 38; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 41;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 47;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.09; Laws 2007, LB463, § 45;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 2.    


38-146. Continuing competency requirements; compliance; waiver; audits.

(1) Each person holding an active credential within the state shall, on or before the date of expiration of his or her credential, comply with continuing competency requirements for his or her profession. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the department shall not renew the credential of any person who has not complied with such requirements.

(2) The department may waive continuing competency requirements, in whole or in part, upon submission by a credential holder of documentation that circumstances beyond his or her control have prevented completion of such requirements. Such circumstances shall include, but not be limited to:

(a) The credential holder has served in the regular armed forces of the United States during part of the credentialing period immediately preceding the renewal date;

(b) The credential holder was first credentialed within the credentialing period immediately preceding the renewal date; or

(c) Other circumstances prescribed by rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the appropriate practice act.

(3) Each credential holder shall be responsible for maintaining certificates or records of continuing competency activities.

The department or appropriate board may biennially select, in a random manner, a sample of the renewal applications for audit of continuing competency requirements. Each credential holder selected for audit shall be required to produce documentation of the continuing competency activities. The credential of any person who fails to comply with the conditions of the audit shall expire thirty days after notice and an opportunity for a hearing.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 15; Laws 1985, LB 250, § 5;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 63;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 55;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 34;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 42;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 120;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 48;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 3;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 13;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.10; Laws 2007, LB463, § 46.    


38-147. Credential; reinstatement; application; department; powers.

(1) Any person who desires to reinstate a credential after the date of expiration or from inactive to active status shall apply to the department for reinstatement. The credential may be reinstated upon the receipt of evidence of meeting the renewal requirements, or the requirements specified under the practice act for the appropriate profession, which are in effect at the time the credential holder applies to regain active status and payment of reinstatement and renewal fees if applicable.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may deny an application for reinstatement or may issue the credential subject to any of the terms of section 38-196 if the applicant has committed any of the acts set out in section 38-178.

(3) A credential holder who elected to have his or her credential placed on lapsed status prior to December 1, 2008, may have the credential reinstated in accordance with this section.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 47.    


38-148. Credential; suspended, revoked, or other limitations; apply for reinstatement; when.

(1) A person whose credential has been suspended or has had limitations placed thereon for any reason specified in sections 38-178 and 38-179 may apply for reinstatement of the credential at any time. The application shall include such information as may be required by the department.

(2) A person whose credential has been revoked for any reason specified in such sections may apply for reinstatement of the credential after a period of two years has elapsed from the date of revocation. The application shall include such information as may be required by the department.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 9; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 57;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 49;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 32;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 23;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 37;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 45;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 48.    


38-149. Application for reinstatement of credential for profession with board; when considered and acted upon; hearing; when allowed; procedure; appeal.

(1) Upon receipt of an application under section 38-148 for reinstatement of a credential in a profession that has a board, the application shall be sent to the board for consideration. Any application for reinstatement, accompanied by the required information and documentation, shall be acted upon by the board within one hundred eighty days after the filing of the completed application.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may:

(a) Conduct an investigation to determine if the applicant has committed acts or offenses prohibited by section 38-178;

(b) Require the applicant to submit to a complete diagnostic examination at the expense of the applicant by one or more physicians or other qualified professionals appointed by the board, the applicant being free also to consult a physician or physicians or other professionals of his or her own choice for an evaluation or diagnostic examination and to make available a report or reports thereof to the department and the appropriate board;

(c) Require the applicant to pass a written, oral, or practical examination or any combination of such examinations at the expense of the applicant;

(d) Require the applicant to successfully complete additional education at the expense of the applicant;

(e) Require the applicant to successfully pass an inspection of his or her practice site; or

(f) Take any combination of the actions in this subsection.

(3) On the basis of material submitted by the applicant, the results of any inspection or investigation by the department, and the completion of any requirements imposed under subsection (2) of this section, the board shall (a) deny the application for reinstatement or (b) recommend to the department (i) full reinstatement of the credential, (ii) modification of the suspension or limitation, or (iii) reinstatement of the credential subject to limitations or subject to probation with terms and conditions.

(4) The decision of the board shall become final thirty days after mailing the decision to the applicant unless the applicant requests a hearing within such thirty-day period. If the applicant requests a hearing before the board, the department shall mail notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing to the applicant at least thirty days prior to the hearing. If the applicant has been afforded a hearing or an opportunity for a hearing on an application for reinstatement within two years prior to filing the current application, the department may grant or deny such application without another hearing before the board. The affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the board shall be necessary to recommend reinstatement of a credential with or without terms, conditions, or restrictions.

(5)(a) The department may only consider applications for reinstatement with an affirmative recommendation of the appropriate board. If the board recommends (i) full reinstatement of the credential, (ii) modification of the suspension or limitation, or (iii) reinstatement of the credential subject to limitations or subject to probation with terms and conditions, the board's recommendation shall be sent to the applicant by certified mail and forwarded to the director for a decision.

(b) The director shall receive (i) the written recommendation of the board, including any finding of fact or order of the board, (ii) the application for reinstatement, (iii) the record of hearing if any, and (iv) any pleadings, motions, requests, preliminary or intermediate rulings and orders, and similar correspondence to or from the board and the applicant.

(c) The director shall then review the application and other documents and may affirm the recommendation of the board and grant reinstatement or may reverse or modify the recommendation if the board's recommendation is (i) in excess of statutory authority, (ii) made upon unlawful procedure, (iii) unsupported by competent, material, and substantial evidence in view of the entire record, or (iv) arbitrary or capricious.

(6) The director's decision may be appealed by any party to the decision. The appeal shall be in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.

(7) Denial by a board of an application for reinstatement may be appealed. The appeal shall be in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 11; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 59;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 51;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 8;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 39;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 390;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.06; Laws 2007, LB296, § 312;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 49.    


Cross References

38-150. Application for reinstatement of credential for profession without board; department; procedure; hearing; when allowed; appeal.

(1) Upon receipt of an application for reinstatement of a credential in a profession that does not have a board, the application shall be considered by the department.

(2) The department may:

(a) Conduct an investigation to determine if the applicant has committed acts or offenses prohibited by section 38-178;

(b) Require the applicant to submit to a complete diagnostic examination by one or more physicians or other qualified professionals appointed by the department, the applicant being free also to consult a physician or physicians or other professionals of his or her own choice for an evaluation or diagnostic examination and to make available a report or reports thereof to the department;

(c) Require the applicant to pass a written, oral, or practical examination or any combination of such examinations;

(d) Require the applicant to successfully complete additional education;

(e) Require the applicant, if a business, to successfully complete an inspection; or

(f) Take any combination of the actions in this subsection.

(3) On the basis of material submitted by the applicant, the results of any inspection or investigation by the department, and the completion of any requirements imposed under subsection (2) of this section, the department shall (a) deny the application for reinstatement, (b) grant the application for reinstatement, (c) modify the probation, suspension, or limitation, or (d) reinstate the credential subject to limitations or subject to probation with terms and conditions.

(4) The decision of the department shall become final thirty days after mailing the decision to the applicant unless the applicant requests a hearing within such thirty-day period. If the applicant requests a hearing, the department shall mail notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing to the applicant at least thirty days prior to the hearing. Any requested hearing shall be held according to rules and regulations of the department for administrative hearings in contested cases. Any party to the decision shall have a right to appeal. Such appeal shall be in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.

(5) If the applicant has been afforded a hearing or an opportunity for a hearing on an application for reinstatement within two years prior to filing the current application, the department may grant or deny such application without another hearing.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 50.    


Cross References

38-151. Credentialing system; administrative costs; how paid; patient safety fee.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that the revenue to cover the cost of the credentialing system administered by the department is to be derived from General Funds, cash funds, federal funds, gifts, grants, or fees from individuals or businesses seeking credentials except as otherwise provided in section 38-155. The credentialing system includes the totality of the credentialing infrastructure and the process of issuance and renewal of credentials, examinations, inspections, investigations, continuing competency, compliance assurance, the periodic review under section 38-128, and the activities conducted under the Nebraska Regulation of Health Professions Act, for individuals and businesses that provide health services, health-related services, and environmental services.

(2) The department shall determine the cost of the credentialing system for such individuals and businesses by calculating the total of the base costs, the variable costs, and any adjustments as provided in sections 38-152 to 38-154.

(3) When fees are to be established pursuant to section 38-155 for individuals or businesses, the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board if applicable, shall base the fees on the cost of the credentialing system and shall include usual and customary cost increases, a reasonable reserve, and the cost of any new or additional credentialing activities. All such fees shall be used as provided in section 38-157.

(4) In addition to the fees established under section 38-155, each applicant for the initial issuance and renewal of a credential to practice as a physician or an osteopathic physician under the Medicine and Surgery Practice Act shall pay a patient safety fee of fifty dollars and to practice as a physician assistant under the Medicine and Surgery Practice Act shall pay a patient safety fee of twenty dollars, which fee shall be collected biennially with the initial or renewal fee for the credential. Revenue from such fee shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for credit to the Patient Safety Cash Fund. The patient safety fee shall terminate on January 1, 2026, unless extended by the Legislature.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 61, p. 469; C.S.1929, § 71-701; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 34, p. 531; Laws 1937, c. 157, § 1, p. 615; Laws 1941, c. 141, § 1, p. 555; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-701; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 16, p. 545; R.S.1943, § 71-162; Laws 1953, c. 238, § 3, p. 825; Laws 1955, c. 270, § 2, p. 850; Laws 1957, c. 292, § 1, p. 1048; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 12, p. 1080; Laws 1959, c. 318, § 2, p. 1166; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 8, p. 1054; Laws 1963, c. 409, § 1, p. 1314; Laws 1965, c. 412, § 1, p. 1319; Laws 1967, c. 438, § 4, p. 1350; Laws 1967, c. 439, § 17, p. 1364; Laws 1969, c. 560, § 6, p. 2281; Laws 1969, c. 562, § 1, p. 2288; Laws 1971, LB 300, § 1;    Laws 1971, LB 587, § 9;    Laws 1973, LB 515, § 3;    Laws 1975, LB 92, § 1;    Laws 1978, LB 689, § 1;    Laws 1978, LB 406, § 12;    Laws 1979, LB 4, § 6;    Laws 1979, LB 428, § 3;    Laws 1981, LB 451, § 8; Laws 1982, LB 263, § 1;    Laws 1982, LB 448, § 2;    Laws 1982, LB 449, § 2;    Laws 1982, LB 450, § 2;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 22;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 12;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 8;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 72;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 64;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 36;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 14;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 18;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 26;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 20;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 12;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 9;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 17; Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 39; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 7;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 12;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 46;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 9;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 18;    Laws 1997, LB 622, § 80;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 54;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 7;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 23;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 2;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 10;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 113;    Laws 2006, LB 994, § 81;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-162; Laws 2007, LB236, § 6;    Laws 2007, LB283, § 1;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 51;    Laws 2012, LB834, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB25, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 8;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 44.    


Cross References

38-152. Base costs of credentialing.

Base costs of credentialing are the costs that are common to all professions and businesses listed in section 38-121 and include the following:

(1) Salaries and benefits for employees of the department who work with credentialing activities;

(2) Shared operating costs for credentialing activities that are not specific to a particular profession or business such as indirect costs, rent, and utilities;

(3) Costs related to compliance assurance, including investigative costs, contested case costs, and compliance monitoring;

(4) Costs of the Licensee Assistance Program under section 38-175;

(5) Capital costs, including office equipment and computer hardware or software, which are not specific to a particular profession or business; and

(6) Other reasonable and necessary costs as determined by the department.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 24;    R.S.1943, (2003) § 71-162.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 52.    


38-153. Variable costs of credentialing.

Variable costs of credentialing are the costs that are unique to a specific profession or business listed in section 38-121 and include the following:

(1) Per diems which are paid to members of the appropriate board;

(2) Operating costs that are specific to a particular profession or business, including publications, conference registrations, and subscriptions;

(3) Costs for travel by members of the appropriate board and employees of the department related to a particular profession or business, including car rental, gas, and mileage charges but not salaries;

(4) Costs to operate and administer the Nebraska Center for Nursing, which costs shall be derived from credentialing fees of registered and practical nurses in accordance with section 71-1798.01; and

(5) Other reasonable and necessary costs as determined by the appropriate board or the department.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 25;    Laws 2005, LB 243, § 1;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-162.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 53.    


38-154. Adjustments to the cost of credentialing.

Adjustments to the cost of credentialing include, but are not limited to:

(1) Revenue from sources that include, but are not limited to:

(a) Interest earned on the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund, if any;

(b) Certification and verification of credentials;

(c) Administrative fees;

(d) Reinstatement fees;

(e) General Funds and federal funds;

(f) Fees for miscellaneous services, such as production of photocopies, lists, labels, and diskettes;

(g) Gifts; and

(h) Grants;

(2) Transfers to other funds for costs related to the Nebraska Regulation of Health Professions Act and section 38-128; and

(3) Costs associated with subsection (3) of section 38-155.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 26;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-162.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 54;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 9.    


Cross References

38-155. Credentialing fees; establishment and collection.

(1) Subject to subsection (3) of this section, the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board if applicable, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to establish and collect the fees for the following credentials:

(a) Initial credentials, which include, but are not limited to:

(i) Licensure, certification, or registration;

(ii) Add-on or specialty credentials;

(iii) Temporary, provisional, or training credentials; and

(iv) Supervisory or collaborative relationship credentials;

(b) Applications to renew licenses, certifications, and registrations;

(c) Approval of continuing education courses and other methods of continuing competency; and

(d) Inspections and reinspections.

(2) When a credential will expire within one hundred eighty days after its initial issuance date or its reinstatement date and the initial credentialing or renewal fee is twenty-five dollars or more, the department shall collect twenty-five dollars or one-fourth of the initial credentialing or renewal fee, whichever is greater, for the initial or reinstated credential. The initial or reinstated credential shall be valid until the next subsequent renewal date.

(3) All fees for initial credentials under the Uniform Credentialing Act for low-income individuals, military families, and young workers shall be waived except the actual cost of the fingerprinting and criminal background check for an initial license under section 38-131.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 27;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-162.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 55;    Laws 2012, LB773, § 1;    Laws 2019, LB112, § 10;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 45.    


38-156. Administrative and other fees; amount.

(1) The department shall retain a twenty-five-dollar administrative fee from each credentialing fee established under section 38-155 for a denied credential or a withdrawn application, except that (a) if the credentialing fee is less than twenty-five dollars, the fee shall be forfeited and (b) an examination fee shall not be returned.

(2) The department shall collect fees for services as follows:

(a) Ten dollars for a duplicate original or reissued credential;

(b) Twenty-five dollars for certification of a credential pursuant to section 38-125;

(c) Five dollars for verification of a credential pursuant to section 38-125; and

(d) A reinstatement fee of thirty-five dollars in addition to the renewal fee to reinstate an expired or inactive credential for professions specified in section 38-121.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 28;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-162.05; Laws 2007, LB463, § 56.    


38-157. Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund; created; use; investment.

(1) The Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund is created. Except as provided in section 71-17,113, the fund shall consist of all fees, gifts, grants, and other money, excluding fines and civil penalties, received or collected by the department under sections 38-151 to 38-156 and the Nebraska Regulation of Health Professions Act.

(2) The department shall use the fund for the administration and enforcement of such laws regulating the individuals and businesses listed in section 38-121. Transfers may be made from the fund to the General Fund at the direction of the Legislature. The State Treasurer shall transfer any money in the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund for licensing activities under the Water Well Standards and Contractors' Practice Act on July 1, 2021, to the Water Well Standards and Contractors' Licensing Fund.

(3) Any money in the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund available for investment shall be invested by the state investment officer pursuant to the Nebraska Capital Expansion Act and the Nebraska State Funds Investment Act. Beginning October 1, 2024, any investment earnings from investment of money in the fund shall be credited to the General Fund.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 62, p. 471; C.S.1929, § 71-702; R.S.1943, § 71-163; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 37;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 27;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 47;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 30;    Laws 2005, LB 146, § 10;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-163; Laws 2007, LB463, § 57;    Laws 2009, First Spec. Sess., LB3, § 19;    Laws 2012, LB834, § 2;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 46;    Laws 2024, First Spec. Sess., LB3, § 11.    
Effective Date: August 21, 2024


Cross References

38-158. Boards; appointment; vacancy.

(1) The State Board of Health shall appoint members to the boards designated in section 38-167 except the Board of Emergency Medical Services.

(2) Any vacancy in the membership of a board caused by death, resignation, removal, or otherwise shall be filled for the unexpired term in the same manner as original appointments are made.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 11, p. 457; C.S.1929, § 71-301; R.S.1943, § 71-111; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 4;    Laws 1981, LB 451, § 2; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 31;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 23;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 6;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 7;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 17;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 13;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 4;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-111; Laws 2007, LB463, § 58;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 47.    


38-159. Board; application; professional member; state association or society recommendation.

(1) Any person who desires to be considered for an appointment to a board appointed by the State Board of Health and who possesses the necessary qualifications for such appointment may apply in a manner specified by the State Board of Health. The State Board of Health shall consider such applications and may appoint any qualified person so applying to the appropriate board.

(2) A state association or society, or its managing board, for each profession may submit to the State Board of Health a list of persons of recognized ability in such profession who have the qualifications prescribed for professional members of the board for that particular profession. If such a list is submitted, the State Board of Health shall consider the names on such list and may appoint one of the persons so named.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 17, p. 458; C.S.1929, § 71-307; Laws 1939, c. 91, § 3, p. 394; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-307; R.S.1943, § 71-117; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 8;    Laws 1992, LB 860, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 21;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-117; Laws 2007, LB463, § 59.    


38-160. Board; member; removal; procedure; grounds.

(1) The State Board of Health shall have power to remove from office at any time any member of a board for which it appoints the membership, after a public hearing pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, for physical or mental incapacity to carry out the duties of a board member, for continued neglect of duty, for incompetency, for acting beyond the individual member's scope of authority, for malfeasance in office, for not maintaining the qualifications established in sections 38-164 and 38-165, for any cause for which a credential in the profession or business involved may be suspended or revoked under section 38-178 or 38-179, or for a lack of a credential in the profession or business involved.

(2) The State Board of Health shall have full access to such complaints or investigational records as necessary and appropriate in the discharge of its duties under subsection (1) of this section and section 38-158.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 18, p. 458; C.S.1929, § 71-308; R.S.1943, § 71-118; Laws 1979, LB 427, § 9;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 35;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 27;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 12;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 6;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 20;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 22;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-118; Laws 2007, LB463, § 60.    


Cross References

38-161. Boards; purpose; duties; advisory committees or bodies authorized.

(1) The purpose of each board is to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public as prescribed in the Uniform Credentialing Act.

(2) The duties of each board include, but are not limited to, (a) setting the minimum standards of proficiency and competency in accordance with section 38-126, (b) providing recommendations in accordance with section 38-149, (c) providing recommendations related to the issuance or denial of credentials, disciplinary action, and changes in legislation, and (d) providing the department with recommendations on regulations to carry out the Uniform Credentialing Act in accordance with section 38-126.

(3) Each board may appoint advisory committees or other advisory bodies as necessary for specific purposes. At least one board member shall serve on each advisory committee or body, and other members may be appointed from outside the board.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 448, § 3;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 7;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 16;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-112.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 61.    


38-162. Boards; membership.

Except as otherwise provided in the Uniform Credentialing Act:

(1) Each board shall consist of four members;

(2) Each board shall have at least one public member; and

(3) If a board has eleven or more members, it shall have at least three public members.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 13, p. 457; C.S.1929, § 71-303; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 5, p. 540; R.S.1943, § 71-113; Laws 1963, c. 408, § 4, p. 1311; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 2;    Laws 1978, LB 406, § 5;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 6;    Laws 1980, LB 94, § 3; Laws 1983, LB 476, § 1;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 10;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 6;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 6;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 33;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 25;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 12;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 8;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 9;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 17;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 7;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 4;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 15;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 17;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 108;    Laws 2006, LB 994, § 80;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-113; Laws 2007, LB463, § 62.    


38-163. Boards; members; term.

(1) The members of each board shall be appointed for terms of five years except as otherwise provided in the Uniform Credentialing Act. No member shall be appointed for or serve for more than two consecutive full five-year terms except as otherwise specifically provided in the act.

(2) The term of each member shall commence on the first day of December following the expiration of the term of the member whom such person succeeds except as otherwise provided in the act.

Source:Laws 1943, c. 150, § 8, p. 541; R.S.1943, § 71-116; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 10, p. 1079; Laws 1963, c. 408, § 5, p. 1311; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 4;    Laws 1978, LB 406, § 7;    Laws 1979, LB 297, § 3;    Laws 1979, LB 428, § 2;    Laws 1981, LB 451, § 4; Laws 1983, LB 476, § 2;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 12;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 8;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 34;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 26;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 7;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 11;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 11;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 9;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 19;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 5;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 20;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 110;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-116; Laws 2007, LB463, § 63.    


38-164. Boards; professional members; qualifications.

(1) A professional member of a board appointed under the Uniform Licensing Law prior to December 1, 2008, shall remain subject to the requirements of the original appointment until reappointed under the Uniform Credentialing Act. Except as otherwise provided in the Uniform Credentialing Act, every professional member of a board appointed on or after December 1, 2008, shall have held and maintained an active credential and be and have been actively engaged in the practice of his or her profession for a period of five years just preceding his or her appointment and shall maintain such credential and practice while serving as a board member. For purposes of this section, active practice means devoting a substantial portion of time to rendering professional services.

(2) Each professional member of a board shall have been a resident of Nebraska for one year and shall remain a resident of Nebraska while serving as a board member.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 14, p. 458; C.S.1929, § 71-304; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 31, p. 530; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-304; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 6, p. 540; R.S.1943, § 71-114; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 9, p. 1078; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 6;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 7;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 11;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 7;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 5;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 9;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 10;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 18;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 8;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 18;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 16;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 18;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 109;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-114; Laws 2007, LB463, § 64.    


38-165. Boards; public members; qualifications.

A public member of a board appointed under the Uniform Licensing Law prior to December 1, 2008, shall remain subject to the requirements of the original appointment until reappointed under the Uniform Credentialing Act. At the time of appointment and while serving as a board member, a public member appointed to a board on or after December 1, 2008, shall:

(1) Have been a resident of this state for one year;

(2) Remain a resident of Nebraska while serving as a board member;

(3) Have attained the age of nineteen years;

(4) Represent the interests and viewpoints of the public;

(5) Not hold an active credential in any profession or business which is subject to the Uniform Credentialing Act, issued in Nebraska or in any other jurisdiction, at any time during the five years prior to appointment;

(6) Not be eligible for appointment to a board which regulates a profession or business in which that person has ever held a credential;

(7) Not be or not have been, at any time during the year prior to appointment, an employee of a member of a profession credentialed by the department, of a facility credentialed pursuant to the Health Care Facility Licensure Act, of a business credentialed pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act, or of a business regulated by the board to which the appointment is being made;

(8) Not be the parent, child, spouse, or household member of any person presently regulated by the board to which the appointment is being made;

(9) Have no material financial interest in the profession or business regulated by such board; and

(10) Not be a member or employee of the legislative or judicial branch of state government.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 65;    Laws 2014, LB132, § 10.    


Cross References

38-166. Initial board subject to act; additional qualifications for members.

For professions coming within the scope of the Uniform Credentialing Act for the first time:

(1) A professional member of a board shall not be required to have held and maintained an active credential for a period of five years just preceding his or her appointment. Members appointed during the first five years after a profession comes within the scope of the act shall be required to meet the minimum qualifications for credentialing and shall, insofar as possible, meet the requirements as to years of practice in this state otherwise provided by section 38-164;

(2) All professional members appointed to an initial board shall be credentialed within six months after being appointed to the board or within six months after the date by which members of the profession are required to be credentialed, whichever is later. If for any reason a professional member is not credentialed within such time period, a new professional member shall be appointed to take his or her place;

(3) Members shall be appointed to the initial board within thirty days after the effective or operative date, whichever is later, of the legislation providing for credentialing of the profession; and

(4) The terms of the initial board members shall be as follows: One member shall hold office until December 1 of the third year following the year in which the legislation providing for credentialing of the profession became effective; two, including one public member, until December 1 of the fourth year; and two, including one public member, until December 1 of the fifth year.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 66.    


38-167. Boards; designated; change in name; effect.

(1) Boards shall be designated as follows:

(a) Board of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses;

(b) Board of Alcohol and Drug Counseling;

(c) Board of Athletic Training;

(d) Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology;

(e) Board of Behavior Analysts;

(f) Board of Chiropractic;

(g) Board of Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art;

(h) Board of Dentistry;

(i) Board of Emergency Medical Services;

(j) Board of Registered Environmental Health Specialists;

(k) Board of Funeral Directing and Embalming;

(l) Board of Hearing Instrument Specialists;

(m) Board of Massage Therapy;

(n) Board of Medical Nutrition Therapy;

(o) Board of Medical Radiography;

(p) Board of Medicine and Surgery;

(q) Board of Mental Health Practice;

(r) Board of Nursing;

(s) Board of Nursing Home Administration;

(t) Board of Occupational Therapy Practice;

(u) Board of Optometry;

(v) Board of Pharmacy;

(w) Board of Physical Therapy;

(x) Board of Podiatry;

(y) Board of Psychology;

(z) Board of Respiratory Care Practice; and

(aa) Board of Veterinary Medicine and Surgery.

(2) Any change made by the Legislature of the names of boards listed in this section shall not change the membership of such boards or affect the validity of any action taken by or the status of any action pending before any of such boards. Any such board newly named by the Legislature shall be the direct and only successor to the board as previously named.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 12, p. 457; C.S.1929, § 71-302; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 30, p. 530; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-302; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 4, p. 540; R.S.1943, § 71-112; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 8, p. 1078; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 6, p. 1053; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 4;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 5;    Laws 1981, LB 451, § 3; Laws 1984, LB 481, § 9;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 5;    Laws 1986, LB 277, § 5;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 32;    Laws 1986, LB 355, § 11;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 24;    Laws 1988, LB 557, § 16;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 8;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 8;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 5;    Laws 1993, LB 669, § 6;    Laws 1995, LB 406, § 14;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 14;    Laws 2000, LB 833, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 270, § 5;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 7;    Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 107;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-112; Laws 2007, LB236, § 5;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 67;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 7;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 48;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 20.    


38-168. Boards; conflict of interest.

The department may establish definitions of conflicts of interest for members of the boards and may establish procedures in the case such a conflict arises. For purposes of this section, conflict of interest includes financial, professional, or personal obligations that may compromise or present the appearance of compromising the judgment of a member in the performance of his or her duties.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 448, § 5;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 10;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 19;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-115.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 68.    


38-169. Board; organization.

Each board shall organize annually at its first meeting subsequent to December 1 and shall select a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and a secretary from its own membership.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 20, p. 459; C.S.1929, § 71-310; R.S.1943, § 71-120; Laws 1999, LB 828, § 24;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-120; Laws 2007, LB463, § 69.    


38-170. Board; business; how transacted.

The department shall, as far as practicable, provide for the conducting of the business of the boards by mail and may hold meetings by virtual conferencing subject to the Open Meetings Act. Any official action or vote of the members of a board taken by mail shall be preserved in the records of the department and shall be recorded in the board's minutes by the department.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 21, p. 459; C.S.1929, § 71-311; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 9, p. 541; R.S.1943, § 71-121; Laws 1978, LB 406, § 8;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 11;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 9;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 8;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 12;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 114;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 25;    Laws 2004, LB 821, § 16;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-121; Laws 2007, LB463, § 70;    Laws 2021, LB83, § 4.    


Cross References

38-171. Board; advisory committee or body; compensation; limitation; expenses.

Each member of a board shall, in addition to necessary traveling and lodging expenses, receive a per diem for each day actually engaged in the discharge of his or her duties, including compensation for the time spent in traveling to and from the place of conducting business. Traveling and lodging expenses shall be on the same basis as provided in sections 81-1174 to 81-1177. The compensation per day shall not exceed fifty dollars and shall be determined by each board with the approval of the department. Persons serving on an advisory committee or body under section 38-161 shall receive remuneration of expenses as provided in sections 81-1174 to 81-1177, including compensation for time spent in traveling to and from the place of conducting business, and a per diem of fifty dollars.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 22, p. 459; Laws 1929, c. 161, § 1, p. 556; C.S.1929, § 71-312; Laws 1935, c. 142, § 32, p. 531; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-312; R.S.1943, § 71-122; Laws 1955, c. 270, § 1, p. 849; Laws 1957, c. 298, § 11, p. 1079; Laws 1959, c. 318, § 1, p. 1165; Laws 1961, c. 337, § 7, p. 1053; Laws 1965, c. 410, § 1, p. 1315; Laws 1967, c. 438, § 1, p. 1347; Laws 1967, c. 439, § 16, p. 1364; Laws 1969, c. 561, § 1, p. 2287; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 5;    Laws 1972, LB 1385, § 1;    Laws 1978, LB 406, § 9;    Laws 1979, LB 427, § 12;    Laws 1981, LB 451, § 5; Laws 1981, LB 204, § 108;    Laws 1984, LB 481, § 13;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 10;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 10;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 27;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 17;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-122; Laws 2007, LB463, § 71.    


38-172. Board; national organization or related meetings; attendance.

Each board may select one or more of its members to attend the annual meeting of the national organization of state boards of such profession or other related meetings. Any member so selected shall receive his or her necessary traveling and lodging expenses in attending such meetings on the same basis as provided in sections 81-1174 to 81-1177.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 24, p. 460; C.S.1929, § 71-314; R.S.1943, § 71-124; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 7;    Laws 1981, LB 204, § 110;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 12;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 29;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-124; Laws 2007, LB463, § 72.    


38-173. Board; liability; exemption; when.

No member of a board, no expert retained by the department, and no member of a profession who provides consultation to or testimony for the department shall be liable in damages to any person for slander, libel, defamation of character, breach of any privileged communication, or otherwise for any action taken or recommendation made within the scope of the functions of such board or expert or the consultation or testimony given by such person, if such board member, expert, or person acts without malice and in the reasonable belief that such action, recommendation, consultation, or testimony is warranted by the facts known to him or her after a reasonable effort is made to obtain the facts on which such action is taken, recommendation is made, or consultation or testimony is provided.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 24; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 71;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 63;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 398;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 52;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.19; Laws 2007, LB463, § 73.    


38-174. Department; responsibilities; costs; how paid.

The department shall be responsible for the general administration of the activities of each of the boards. The cost of operation and administration of the boards shall be paid from the General Fund and the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund.

Source:Laws 1972, LB 1385, § 3;    Laws 1980, LB 958, § 1; Laws 1980, LB 847, § 1; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 9;    Laws 1991, LB 10, § 1;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 115;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 26;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 16;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 20;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-121.01; Laws 2007, LB296, § 300;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 74.    


38-175. Licensee Assistance Program; authorized; participation; immunity from liability; confidentiality; referral; limitation.

(1) The department may contract to provide a Licensee Assistance Program to credential holders regulated by the department. The program shall be limited to providing education, referral assistance, and monitoring of compliance with treatment for abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance and shall be limited to voluntary participation by credential holders.

(2)(a) Participation in the program shall be confidential, except that if any evaluation by the program determines that the abuse, dependence, or active addiction may be of a nature which constitutes a danger to the public health and safety by the person's continued practice or if the person fails to comply with any term or condition of a treatment plan, the program shall report the same to the director.

(b) Participation in the program shall not preclude the investigation of alleged statutory violations which could result in disciplinary action against the person's credential or criminal action against the person.

(3) Any report from any person or from the program to the department indicating that a credential holder is suffering from abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession shall be treated as a complaint against such credential and shall subject such credential holder to discipline under sections 38-186 to 38-1,100.

(4) No person who makes such a report to the program or from the program to the department shall be liable in damages to any person for slander, libel, defamation of character, breach of any privileged communication, or other criminal or civil action of any nature, whether direct or derivative, for making such report or providing information to the program or department in accordance with this section. The identity of any person making such a report or providing information leading to the making of a report shall be confidential.

(5) Any person who contacts the department for information on or assistance in obtaining referral or treatment of himself or herself or any other person credentialed by the department for abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession shall be referred to the program. Such inquiries shall not be used by the department as the basis for investigation for disciplinary action, except that such limitation shall not apply to complaints or any other reports or inquiries made to the department concerning persons who may be suffering from abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession or when a complaint has been filed or an investigation or disciplinary or other administrative proceeding is in process.

Source:Laws 1991, LB 456, § 8; Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 13;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 403;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 121;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 25;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 31;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-172.01; Laws 2007, LB296, § 322;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 75;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 3.    


38-176. Director; jurisdiction of proceedings; grounds for denial of credential.

(1) The director shall have jurisdiction of proceedings (a) to deny the issuance of a credential, (b) to refuse renewal of a credential, and (c) to discipline a credential holder.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in section 38-1,119, if an applicant for an initial credential or for renewal of a credential to practice a profession does not meet all of the requirements for the credential, the department shall deny issuance or renewal of the credential.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 76.    


38-177. Disciplinary actions; terms, defined.

For purposes of sections 38-178, 38-179, and 38-184:

(1) Confidential information means information protected as privileged under applicable law;

(2) Conviction means a plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere or non vult contendere made to a formal criminal charge or a judicial finding of guilt irrespective of the pronouncement of judgment or the suspension thereof and includes instances in which the imposition or the execution of sentence is suspended following a judicial finding of guilt and the defendant is placed on probation; and

(3) Pattern of incompetent or negligent conduct means a continued course of incompetent or negligent conduct in performing the duties of the profession.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 6; Laws 1978, LB 748, § 36;    Laws 1986, LB 318, § 142;    Laws 1988, LB 693, § 1;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 21;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 77.    


38-178. Disciplinary actions; grounds.

Except as otherwise provided in sections 38-1,119 to 38-1,123, a credential to practice a profession may be issued subject to discipline, denied, refused renewal, or have other disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-183, 38-185, or 38-186 on any of the following grounds:

(1) Misrepresentation of material facts in procuring or attempting to procure a credential;

(2) Immoral or dishonorable conduct evidencing unfitness to practice the profession in this state;

(3) Abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance;

(4) Failure to comply with a treatment program or an aftercare program, including, but not limited to, a program entered into under the Licensee Assistance Program established pursuant to section 38-175;

(5) Conviction of (a) a misdemeanor or felony under Nebraska law or federal law, or (b) a crime in any jurisdiction which, if committed within this state, would have constituted a misdemeanor or felony under Nebraska law and which has a rational connection with the fitness or capacity of the applicant or credential holder to practice the profession;

(6) Practice of the profession (a) fraudulently, (b) beyond its authorized scope, (c) with gross incompetence or gross negligence, or (d) in a pattern of incompetent or negligent conduct;

(7) Practice of the profession while the ability to practice is impaired by alcohol, controlled substances, drugs, mind-altering substances, physical disability, mental disability, or emotional disability;

(8) Physical or mental incapacity to practice the profession as evidenced by a legal judgment or a determination by other lawful means;

(9) Illness, deterioration, or disability that impairs the ability to practice the profession;

(10) Permitting, aiding, or abetting the practice of a profession or the performance of activities requiring a credential by a person not credentialed to do so;

(11) Performing or offering to perform scleral tattooing as defined in section 38-10,172 by a person not credentialed to do so;

(12) Having had his or her credential denied, refused renewal, limited, suspended, revoked, or disciplined in any manner similar to section 38-196 by another state or jurisdiction based upon acts by the applicant or credential holder similar to acts described in this section;

(13) Use of untruthful, deceptive, or misleading statements in advertisements, including failure to comply with section 38-124;

(14) Conviction of fraudulent or misleading advertising or conviction of a violation of the Uniform Deceptive Trade Practices Act;

(15) Distribution of intoxicating liquors, controlled substances, or drugs for any other than lawful purposes;

(16) Violations of the Uniform Credentialing Act or the rules and regulations relating to the particular profession;

(17) Unlawful invasion of the field of practice of any profession regulated by the Uniform Credentialing Act which the credential holder is not credentialed to practice;

(18) Violation of the Uniform Controlled Substances Act or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to the act;

(19) Failure to file a report required by section 38-1,124, 38-1,125, or 71-552;

(20) Failure to maintain the requirements necessary to obtain a credential;

(21) Violation of an order issued by the department;

(22) Violation of an assurance of compliance entered into under section 38-1,108;

(23) Failure to pay an administrative penalty;

(24) Unprofessional conduct as defined in section 38-179;

(25) Violation of the Automated Medication Systems Act;

(26) Failure to comply with section 38-1,147; or

(27) Violation of the Preborn Child Protection Act.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 46, p. 466; C.S.1929, § 71-601; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 10, p. 541; R.S.1943, § 71-147; Laws 1976, LB 877, § 1; Laws 1979, LB 95, § 1;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 45;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 37;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 24;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 15;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 16;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 7; Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 37; Laws 1993, LB 536, § 44;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 25;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 6;    Laws 1997, LB 622, § 79;    Laws 1999, LB 366, § 8;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 20;    Laws 2005, LB 301, § 9;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-147; Laws 2007, LB463, § 78;    Laws 2008, LB308, § 10;    Laws 2011, LB591, § 2;    Laws 2015, LB452, § 2;    Laws 2019, LB449, § 1;    Laws 2022, LB752, § 8;    Laws 2023, LB574, § 7.    


Cross References

Annotations

38-179. Disciplinary actions; unprofessional conduct, defined.

For purposes of section 38-178, unprofessional conduct means any departure from or failure to conform to the standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of a profession or the ethics of the profession, regardless of whether a person, consumer, or entity is injured, or conduct that is likely to deceive or defraud the public or is detrimental to the public interest, including, but not limited to:

(1) Receipt of fees on the assurance that an incurable disease can be permanently cured;

(2) Division of fees, or agreeing to split or divide the fees, received for professional services with any person for bringing or referring a consumer other than (a) with a partner or employee of the applicant or credential holder or his or her office or clinic, (b) with a landlord of the applicant or credential holder pursuant to a written agreement that provides for payment of rent based on gross receipts, or (c) with a former partner or employee of the applicant or credential holder based on a retirement plan or separation agreement;

(3) Obtaining any fee for professional services by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation, including, but not limited to, falsification of third-party claim documents;

(4) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the credentialing examination;

(5) Assisting in the care or treatment of a consumer without the consent of such consumer or his or her legal representative;

(6) Use of any letters, words, or terms, either as a prefix, affix, or suffix, on stationery, in advertisements, or otherwise, indicating that such person is entitled to practice a profession for which he or she is not credentialed;

(7) Performing, procuring, or aiding and abetting in the performance or procurement of a criminal abortion;

(8) Knowingly disclosing confidential information except as otherwise permitted by law;

(9) Commission of any act of sexual abuse, misconduct, or exploitation related to the practice of the profession of the applicant or credential holder;

(10) Failure to keep and maintain adequate records of treatment or service;

(11) Prescribing, administering, distributing, dispensing, giving, or selling any controlled substance or other drug recognized as addictive or dangerous for other than a medically accepted therapeutic purpose;

(12) Prescribing any controlled substance to (a) oneself or (b) except in the case of a medical emergency (i) one's spouse, (ii) one's child, (iii) one's parent, (iv) one's sibling, or (v) any other person living in the same household as the prescriber;

(13) Failure to comply with any federal, state, or municipal law, ordinance, rule, or regulation that pertains to the applicable profession;

(14) Disruptive behavior, whether verbal or physical, which interferes with consumer care or could reasonably be expected to interfere with such care;

(15) Violation of the Preborn Child Protection Act;

(16) Beginning October 1, 2023, performing gender-altering procedures for an individual younger than nineteen years of age in violation of section 71-7304; and

(17) Such other acts as may be defined in rules and regulations.

Nothing in this section shall be construed to exclude determination of additional conduct that is unprofessional by adjudication in individual contested cases.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 47, p. 466; C.S.1929, § 71-602; Laws 1935, c. 141, § 1, p. 518; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-602; Laws 1943, c. 146, § 11, p. 542; R.S.1943, § 71-148; Laws 1979, LB 95, § 2;    Laws 1981, LB 466, § 1; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 46;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 38;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 25;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 16;    Laws 1988, LB 273, § 9;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 17;    Laws 1991, LB 425, § 11;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 11; Laws 1993, LB 536, § 45;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 27;    Laws 1997, LB 23, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-148; Laws 2007, LB463, § 79;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 49;    Laws 2023, LB574, § 8.    


Cross References

Annotations

38-180. Disciplinary actions; evidence of discipline by another state or jurisdiction.

For purposes of subdivision (12) of section 38-178, a certified copy of the record of denial, refusal of renewal, limitation, suspension, or revocation of a license, certificate, registration, or other similar credential or the taking of other disciplinary measures against it by another state or jurisdiction shall be conclusive evidence of a violation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 80;    Laws 2019, LB449, § 2.    


38-181. Initial credential to operate business; renewal of credential; denial by department; powers of department.

If an applicant for an initial credential to operate a business does not meet all of the requirements for the credential, the department shall deny issuance of the credential. If an applicant for an initial credential to operate a business or a credential holder applying for renewal of the credential to operate a business has committed any of the acts set out in section 38-182, the department may deny issuance or refuse renewal of the credential or may issue or renew the credential subject to any of the terms imposed under section 38-196 in order to protect the public.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 81.    


38-182. Disciplinary actions; credential to operate business; grounds.

A credential to operate a business may be denied, refused renewal, or have disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-196 on any of the following grounds:

(1) Violation of the Uniform Credentialing Act or the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act relating to the applicable business;

(2) Committing or permitting, aiding, or abetting the commission of any unlawful act;

(3) Conduct or practices detrimental to the health or safety of an individual served or employed by the business;

(4) Failure to allow an agent or employee of the department access to the business for the purposes of inspection, investigation, or other information collection activities necessary to carry out the duties of the department;

(5) Discrimination or retaliation against an individual served or employed by the business who has submitted a complaint or information to the department or is perceived to have submitted a complaint or information to the department; or

(6) Failure to file a report required by section 71-552.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 82;    Laws 2011, LB591, § 3.    


38-183. Credential issued by department; temporary suspension or limitation; notice and hearing not required; when; duration.

(1) The department may temporarily suspend or temporarily limit any credential issued by the department without notice or a hearing if the director determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that grounds exist under section 38-178 or 38-182 for the revocation, suspension, or limitation of the credential and that the credential holder's continuation in practice or operation would constitute an imminent danger to the public health and safety. Simultaneously with any such action, the department shall institute proceedings for a hearing on the grounds for revocation, suspension, or limitation of the credential. Such hearing shall be held no later than fifteen days from the date of such temporary suspension or temporary limitation of the credential.

(2) A continuance of the hearing shall be granted by the department upon the written request of the credential holder, and such a continuance shall not exceed thirty days unless waived by the credential holder. A temporary suspension or temporary limitation order by the director shall take effect when served upon the credential holder.

(3) In no case shall a temporary suspension or temporary limitation of a credential under this section be in effect for a period of time in excess of ninety days unless waived by the credential holder. If a decision is not reached within ninety days, the credential shall be reinstated unless and until the department reaches a decision to revoke, suspend, or limit the credential or otherwise discipline the credential holder.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 926, § 26;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 10; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 26;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-147.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 83.    


38-184. Credential; disciplinary actions; time when taken.

If an applicant for a credential or a credential holder is convicted of an offense for which the credential may be denied or refused renewal or have other disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-196, such denial, refusal of renewal, or disciplinary measures may be taken when the time for appeal of the conviction has elapsed or the conviction has been affirmed on appeal or an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition or the execution of sentence, irrespective of any subsequent order under any statute allowing such person to withdraw his or her plea of guilty, nolo contendere, or non vult contendere and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty or the conviction, or releasing the person from probation, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 84.    


38-185. Credential; denial; refuse renewal; notice; hearing.

To deny or refuse renewal of a credential, the department shall notify the applicant or credential holder in writing of the action taken and the reasons for the determination. The denial or refusal to renew shall become final thirty days after mailing the notice unless the applicant or credential holder, within such thirty-day period, requests a hearing in writing. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 49, p. 467; C.S.1929, § 71-604; R.S.1943, § 71-150; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 48;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 40;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 19;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 12; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 29;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 382;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-150; Laws 2007, LB296, § 304;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 85.    


Cross References

Annotations

38-186. Credential; discipline; petition by Attorney General; hearing; department; powers and duties.

(1) A petition shall be filed by the Attorney General in order for the director to discipline a credential obtained under the Uniform Credentialing Act to:

(a) Practice or represent oneself as being certified under any of the practice acts enumerated in section 38-101 other than subdivision (21) of section 38-101; or

(b) Operate as a business for the provision of services in body art; cosmetology; emergency medical services; esthetics; funeral directing and embalming; massage therapy; and nail technology in accordance with subsection (3) of section 38-121.

(2) The petition shall be filed in the office of the director. The department may withhold a petition for discipline or a final decision from public access for a period of five days from the date of filing the petition or the date the decision is entered or until service is made, whichever is earliest.

(3) The proceeding shall be summary in its nature and triable as an equity action and shall be heard by the director or by a hearing officer designated by the director under rules and regulations of the department. Affidavits may be received in evidence in the discretion of the director or hearing officer. The department shall have the power to administer oaths, to subpoena witnesses and compel their attendance, and to issue subpoenas duces tecum and require the production of books, accounts, and documents in the same manner and to the same extent as the district courts of the state. Depositions may be used by either party.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 86;    Laws 2012, LB831, § 28;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 34;    Laws 2017, LB255, § 10;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 21.    


38-187. Credential; discipline; petition; form; other pleadings.

The following rules shall govern the form of the petition in cases brought pursuant to section 38-186:

(1) The state shall be named as plaintiff and the credential holder as defendant;

(2) The charges against the credential holder shall be stated with reasonable definiteness;

(3) Amendments may be made as in ordinary actions in the district court; and

(4) All allegations shall be deemed denied, but the credential holder may plead thereto if he or she desires.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 51, p. 467; C.S.1929, § 71-606; R.S.1943, § 71-152; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 50;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 42;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 31;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-152; Laws 2007, LB463, § 87.    


Annotations

38-188. Credential; discipline; hearing; time; place.

Upon presentation of the petition to the director, he or she shall make an order fixing the time and place for the hearing, which shall not be less than thirty nor more than sixty days thereafter.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 52, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-607; R.S.1943, § 71-153; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 27;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 383;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-153; Laws 2007, LB296, § 306;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 88.    


38-189. Credential; discipline; hearing; notice; how served.

Notice of the filing of a petition pursuant to section 38-186 and of the time and place of hearing shall be served upon the credential holder at least ten days before the hearing. The notice may be served by any method specified in section 25-505.01, or the director may permit substitute or constructive service as provided in section 25-517.02 when service cannot be made with reasonable diligence by any of the methods specified in section 25-505.01.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 53, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-608; R.S.1943, § 71-154; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 51;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 43;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 13; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 32;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-154; Laws 2007, LB463, § 89.    


38-190. Petition for disciplinary action; disposition prior to order; methods; Attorney General; duties.

(1) Any petition filed pursuant to section 38-186 may, at any time prior to the entry of any order by the director, be disposed of by stipulation, agreed settlement, consent order, or similar method as agreed to between the parties. A proposed settlement shall be submitted and considered in camera and shall not be a public record unless accepted by the director. The director may review the input provided to the Attorney General by the board pursuant to subsection (2) of this section. If the settlement is acceptable to the director, he or she shall make it the sole basis of any order he or she enters in the matter, and it may be modified or added to by the director only upon the mutual consent of both of the parties thereto. If the settlement is not acceptable to the director, it shall not be admissible in any subsequent hearing and it shall not be considered in any manner as an admission.

(2) The Attorney General shall not enter into any agreed settlement or dismiss any petition without first having given notice of the proposed action and an opportunity to the appropriate board to provide input into the terms of the settlement or on dismissal. The board shall have fifteen days from the date of the Attorney General's request to respond, but the recommendation of the board, if any, shall not be binding on the Attorney General. Meetings of the board for such purpose shall be in closed session, and any recommendation by the board to the Attorney General shall not be a public record until the pending action is complete, except that if the director reviews the input provided to the Attorney General by the board as provided in subsection (1) of this section, the credential holder shall also be provided a copy of the input and opportunity to respond in such manner as the director determines.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 8; Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 22;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 16; Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 8;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 389;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 44;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.03; Laws 2007, LB296, § 311;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 90.    


38-191. Credential; disciplinary action; hearing; failure to appear; effect.

If a credential holder fails to appear, either in person or by counsel, at the time and place designated in the notice required by section 38-189, the director, after receiving satisfactory evidence of the truth of the charges, shall order the credential revoked or suspended or shall take any or all of the other appropriate disciplinary measures authorized by section 38-196 against the credential.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 55, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-610; R.S.1943, § 71-156; Laws 1976, LB 877, § 4; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 54;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 46;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 34;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 385;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-156; Laws 2007, LB296, § 309;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 91.    


38-192. Credential; disciplinary action; director; sanctions; powers.

(1) If the director determines upon completion of a hearing under section 38-183 or 38-186 that a violation has occurred, the director may, at his or her discretion, consult with the appropriate board concerning sanctions to be imposed or terms and conditions of the sanctions. When the director consults with a board, the credential holder and the Attorney General shall be provided with a copy of the director's request, the recommendation of the board, and an opportunity to respond in such manner as the director determines.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, the director shall have the authority through entry of an order to exercise in his or her discretion any or all of the sanctions authorized under subsection (1) of section 38-196.

(3) If the director determines upon completion of a hearing under section 38-183 or 38-186 that a licensee has performed or induced an unlawful abortion in violation of section 71-6915, the director shall enter an order imposing a sanction authorized under subsection (2) of section 38-196.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 92;    Laws 2023, LB574, § 9.    


38-193. Credential; disciplinary action; partial-birth abortion; violation of Preborn Child Protection Act; director; powers and duties.

(1) If the petition is brought with respect to subdivision (3) of section 38-2021, the director shall make findings as to whether the licensee's conduct was necessary to save the life of a mother whose life was endangered by a physical disorder, physical illness, or physical injury, including a life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself. The director shall have the authority through entry of an order to exercise in his or her discretion any or all of the sanctions authorized under section 38-196, irrespective of the petition.

(2) If the petition is brought with respect to subdivision (5) of section 38-2021, the director shall make findings as to whether the licensee performed or induced an unlawful abortion in violation of section 71-6915. If the director finds such a violation, the director shall enter an order revoking the licensee's credential to practice pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act in the State of Nebraska in accordance with subsection (2) of section 38-196 and section 38-1,100.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 93;    Laws 2023, LB574, § 10.    


38-194. Credential; disciplinary action; costs; how taxed.

If the order issued regarding discipline of a credential is adverse to the credential holder, the costs shall be charged to him or her as in ordinary civil actions in the district court, but if the state is the unsuccessful party, the costs shall be paid out of any money in the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund available for that purpose. Witness fees and costs may be taxed according to the rules prevailing in the district court.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 56, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-611; R.S.1943, § 71-157; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 55;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 47;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 35;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 386;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 118;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 21;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-157; Laws 2007, LB463, § 94.    


38-195. Credential; disciplinary action; costs; when not collectible; how paid.

All costs accrued at the instance of the state when it is the successful party in a proceeding to discipline a credential, which the Attorney General certifies cannot be collected from the defendant, shall be paid out of any available funds in the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 57, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-612; R.S.1943, § 71-158; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 387;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 119;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 22;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-158; Laws 2007, LB463, § 95.    


38-196. Credential; disciplinary action; sanctions authorized.

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, upon the completion of any hearing held regarding discipline of a credential, the director may dismiss the action or impose any of the following sanctions:

(a) Censure;

(b) Probation;

(c) Limitation;

(d) Civil penalty;

(e) Suspension; or

(f) Revocation.

(2) Upon completion of any hearing regarding discipline of a credential for performing or inducing an unlawful abortion in violation of section 71-6915, if the director determines that such violation occurred, the director shall impose a sanction of revocation in accordance with section 38-1,100.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 54, p. 468; C.S.1929, § 71-609; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 13, p. 544; R.S.1943, § 71-155; Laws 1976, LB 877, § 3; Laws 1984, LB 481, § 20;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 52;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 44;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 28;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 20;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 14; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 33;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 7;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 384;    Laws 1997, LB 23, § 6;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 43;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-155; Laws 2007, LB296, § 307;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 96;    Laws 2023, LB574, § 11.    


Annotations

38-197. Credential; disciplinary action; additional terms and conditions of discipline.

If any discipline is imposed pursuant to section 38-196, the director may, in addition to any other terms and conditions of that discipline:

(1) Require the credential holder to obtain additional professional training and to pass an examination upon the completion of the training. The examination may be written or oral or both and may be a practical or clinical examination or both or any or all of such combinations of written, oral, practical, and clinical, at the option of the director;

(2) Require the credential holder to submit to a complete diagnostic examination by one or more physicians or other qualified professionals appointed by the director. If the director requires the credential holder to submit to such an examination, the director shall receive and consider any other report of a complete diagnostic examination given by one or more physicians or other qualified professionals of the credential holder's choice if the credential holder chooses to make available such a report or reports by his or her physician or physicians or other qualified professionals; and

(3) Limit the extent, scope, or type of practice of the credential holder.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 7; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 56;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 48;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 15; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 36;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 388;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.02; Laws 2007, LB296, § 310;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 97.    


38-198. Civil penalty; manner of collection; attorney's fees and costs; disposition.

If a civil penalty is imposed pursuant to section 38-196, it shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars. Any civil penalty assessed and unpaid shall constitute a debt to the State of Nebraska which may be collected in the manner of a lien foreclosure or sued for and recovered in a proper form of action in the name of the state in the district court of the county in which the violator resides or owns property. The department may also collect in such action attorney's fees and costs incurred in the collection of the civil penalty. The department shall, within thirty days from receipt, remit any collected civil penalty to the State Treasurer to be disposed of in accordance with Article VII, section 5, of the Constitution of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 926, § 29;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-155.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 98.    


38-199. Credential; disciplinary action; suspension; effect.

If suspension is imposed pursuant to section 38-196, the credential holder shall not engage in the practice of a profession during the time for which the credential is suspended. The suspension shall be for a definite period of time to be set by the director. The director may provide that the credential shall be (1) automatically reinstated upon expiration of such period, (2) reinstated if the terms and conditions as set by the director are satisfied, or (3) reinstated subject to probation or limitations or conditions upon the practice of the credential holder.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 99.    


38-1,100. Credential; disciplinary action; revocation; effect.

If revocation is imposed pursuant to section 38-196, the credential holder shall not engage in the practice of the profession after a credential to practice such profession is revoked. Such revocation shall be for all times, except that at any time after the expiration of two years, application may be made for reinstatement pursuant to section 38-148.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 100.    


38-1,101. Contested cases; chief medical officer; duties.

If a chief medical officer is appointed pursuant to section 81-3115, he or she shall perform the duties of the director for decisions in contested cases under the Uniform Credentialing Act other than contested cases under sections 38-1,119 to 38-1,123.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 622, § 78;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 21;    Laws 2003, LB 245, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-155.01; Laws 2007, LB296, § 308;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 101.    


38-1,102. Appeal; procedure.

Both parties to disciplinary proceedings under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall have the right of appeal, and the appeal shall be in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act. The case shall be heard at a time fixed by the district court. It shall be advanced and take precedence over all other cases upon the court calendar except worker's compensation and criminal cases.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 58, p. 469; C.S.1929, § 71-613; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 14, p. 544; R.S.1943, § 71-159; Laws 1976, LB 877, § 5; Laws 1988, LB 352, § 113;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-159; Laws 2007, LB463, § 102.    


Cross References

Annotations

38-1,103. Consultant to department from board; authorized.

A board may designate one of its professional members to serve as a consultant to the department in reviewing complaints and on issues of professional practice that may arise during the course of an investigation. Such consultation shall not be required for the department to evaluate a complaint or to proceed with an investigation. A board may also recommend or confer with a consultant member of its profession to assist the board or department on issues of professional practice.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 103.    


38-1,104. Complaint; decision not to investigate; notice; review; notice to credential holder; when.

(1) If the department determines that a complaint will not be investigated, the department shall notify the complainant of such determination. At the request of the complainant, the appropriate board may review the complaint and provide its recommendation to the department on whether the complaint merits investigation.

(2) The department shall notify the credential holder that a complaint has been filed and that an investigation will be conducted except when the department determines that such notice may prejudice an investigation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 104.    


38-1,105. Investigations; department; progress reports to appropriate board; board review; board; powers and duties; review by Attorney General; meetings in closed session.

(1) The department shall advise the appropriate board on the progress of investigations. If requested by the complainant, the identity of the complainant shall not be released to the board.

(2) When the department determines that an investigation is complete, the department shall consult with the board to obtain its recommendation for submission to the Attorney General. In making a recommendation, the board may review all investigative reports and have full access to the investigational file of the department and any previous investigational information in the files of the department on the credential holder that may be relevant to the investigation, except that (a) reports or other documents of any law enforcement agency provided to the department shall not be available for board review except to the extent such law enforcement agency gives permission for release to the board and (b) reports provided by any other agency or public or private entity, which reports are confidential in that agency's or entity's possession and are provided with the express expectation that the report will not be disclosed, may be withheld from board review.

(3) The recommendation of the board shall be made part of the completed investigational report of the department and submitted to the Attorney General. The recommendation of the board shall include, but not be limited to:

(a) The specific violations of any statute, rule, or regulation that the board finds substantiated based upon the investigation;

(b) Matters which the board believes require additional investigation; and

(c) The disposition or possible dispositions that the board believes appropriate under the circumstances.

(4) If the department and the board disagree on the basis for investigation or if the board recommends additional investigation and the department and board disagree on the necessity of additional investigation, the matter shall be forwarded to the Attorney General for review and determination.

(5) All meetings of the boards or between a board and staff of the department or the Attorney General on investigatory matters shall be held in closed session, including the voting of the board on any matter pertaining to the investigation or recommendation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 105.    


38-1,106. Reports, complaints, and records not public records; limitations on use; prohibited disclosure; penalty; application material; how treated; confidentiality.

(1) Reports under sections 38-1,129 to 38-1,136, complaints, and investigational records of the department shall not be public records, shall not be subject to subpoena or discovery, and shall be inadmissible in evidence in any legal proceeding of any kind or character except a contested case before the department. Such reports, complaints, or records shall be a public record if made part of the record of a contested case before the department. No person, including, but not limited to, department employees and members of a board, having access to such reports, complaints, or investigational records shall disclose such information in violation of this section, except that the department may exchange such information with law enforcement and other state licensing agencies as necessary and appropriate in the discharge of the department's duties and only under circumstances to ensure against unauthorized access to such information. Violation of this subsection is a Class I misdemeanor.

(2) Investigational records, reports, and files pertaining to an application for a credential shall not be a public record until action is taken to grant or deny the application and may be withheld from disclosure thereafter under section 84-712.05.

(3) The identity of any person making a report, providing information leading to the making of a report, or otherwise providing information to the department, a board, or the Attorney General included in such reports, complaints, or investigational records shall be confidential whether or not the record of the investigation becomes a public record.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 106;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 4.    


Annotations

38-1,107. Violations; department; Attorney General; powers and duties; applicability of section.

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, the department shall provide the Attorney General with a copy of all complaints it receives and advise the Attorney General of investigations it makes which may involve any possible violation of statutes or rules and regulations by a credential holder. The Attorney General shall then determine which, if any, statutes, rules, or regulations the credential holder has violated and the appropriate legal action to take. The Attorney General may (a) elect to file a petition under section 38-186 or not to file a petition, (b) negotiate a voluntary surrender or voluntary limitation pursuant to section 38-1,109, or (c) in cases involving a minor or insubstantial violation, refer the matter to the appropriate board for the opportunity to resolve the matter by recommending to the Attorney General that he or she enter into an assurance of compliance with the credential holder in lieu of filing a petition. An assurance of compliance shall not constitute discipline against a credential holder.

(2) This section does not apply to the following professions or businesses: Asbestos abatement, inspection, project design, and training; lead-based paint abatement, inspection, project design, and training; medical radiography; and radon detection, measurement, and mitigation.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 481, § 2;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 76;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 68;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 25; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 52;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 58;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-171.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 107;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 50.    


38-1,108. Referral to board; assurance of compliance; recommendation.

Upon referral of a matter under section 38-1,107 by the Attorney General, the board may:

(1) Advise the Attorney General on the content of an agreement to serve as the basis of an assurance of compliance. The Attorney General may contact the credential holder to reach, by voluntary agreement, an assurance of compliance. The assurance shall include a statement of the statute, rule, or regulation in question, a description of the conduct that would violate such statute, rule, or regulation, the assurance of the credential holder that he or she will not engage in such conduct, and acknowledgment by the credential holder that violation of the assurance constitutes unprofessional conduct. Such assurance shall be signed by the credential holder and shall become a part of the public record of the credential holder. The credential holder shall not be required to admit to any violation of the law, and the assurance shall not be construed as such an admission; or

(2) Recommend that the Attorney General file a petition under section 38-186.

Source:Laws 1991, LB 456, § 26; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 53;    Laws 1997, LB 23, § 7;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 59;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-171.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 108.    


38-1,109. Credential holder; voluntarily surrender or limit credential; department; powers; written order of director; violation of terms and conditions; effect.

(1) A credential holder may submit to the department an offer to voluntarily surrender or limit any credential issued by the department pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act. Any such offer may be made to surrender or limit the credential permanently, for an indefinite period of time, or for a specific or definite period of time. The offer shall be made in writing and shall include (a) the reason for the offer of voluntary surrender or limitation, (b) whether the offer is for a permanent, indefinite, or definite period of time, and (c) any terms and conditions that the credential holder wishes to have the department consider and apply to the voluntary surrender or limitation of the credential.

(2) The department may accept an offer of voluntary surrender or limitation of a credential (a) based on an offer made by the credential holder on his or her own volition, (b) based on an offer made with the agreement of the Attorney General for cases brought under section 38-1,107 or the legal counsel of the department for cases brought under sections 38-1,119 to 38-1,123 to resolve a pending disciplinary matter, (c) in lieu of filing a petition for disciplinary action, or (d) in response to a notice of disciplinary action.

(3) The department may reject an offer of voluntary surrender of a credential under circumstances which include, but are not limited to, when such credential (a) is under investigation, (b) has a disciplinary action pending but a disposition has not been rendered, or (c) has had a disciplinary action taken against it.

(4) In all instances, the decision shall be issued in the form of a written order by the director. The order shall be issued within thirty days after receipt of the offer of voluntary surrender or limitation and shall specify (a) whether the department accepts or rejects the offer of voluntary surrender and (b)(i) the terms and conditions under which the voluntary surrender is accepted or (ii) the basis for a rejection of an offer of voluntary surrender. The terms and conditions governing the acceptance of a voluntary surrender shall include, but not be limited to, the duration of the surrender, whether the credential holder may apply to have the credential reinstated, and any terms and conditions for any such reinstatement.

(5) A limitation may be placed upon the right of the credential holder to practice a profession or operate a business to such extent, for such time, and under such conditions as imposed by the director.

(6) Violation of any of the terms and conditions of a voluntary surrender or limitation by the credential holder shall be due cause for the refusal of renewal of the credential, for the suspension or revocation of the credential, or for refusal to restore the credential.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 16; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 35;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.11; Laws 2007, LB463, § 109.    


38-1,110. Complaint alleging dependence or disability; director; investigation; report; review by board; finding; effect.

(1) When the department has received a complaint or report by any person or any report has been made to the director by the Licensee Assistance Program under section 38-175 alleging that an applicant for a credential or a person credentialed to practice any profession is suffering from abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession or illness, deterioration, or disability that impairs the ability to practice the profession, the director shall investigate such complaint to determine if any reasonable cause exists to question the qualification of the applicant or credential holder to practice or to continue to practice such profession.

(2) If the director on the basis of such investigation or, in the absence of such complaint, upon the basis of his or her own independent knowledge finds that reasonable cause exists to question the qualification of the applicant or credential holder to practice such profession because of abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession or illness, deterioration, or disability that impairs the ability to practice the profession, the director shall report such finding and evidence supporting it to the appropriate board.

(3) If such board agrees that reasonable cause exists to question the qualification of such applicant or credential holder, the board shall appoint a committee of three qualified physicians or other qualified professionals to examine the applicant or credential holder and to report their findings and conclusions to the board. The cost of the examination shall be treated as a base cost of credentialing under section 38-152. The board shall then consider the findings and the conclusions of the physicians or other qualified professionals and any other evidence or material which may be submitted to that board by the applicant or credential holder, by the director, or by any other person and shall then determine if the applicant or credential holder is qualified to practice or to continue to practice such profession in the State of Nebraska.

(4) If such board finds the applicant or credential holder to be not qualified to practice or to continue to practice such profession because of abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession or illness, deterioration, or disability that impairs the ability to practice the profession, the board shall so certify that fact to the director with a recommendation for the denial, refusal of renewal, limitation, suspension, or revocation of such credential. The director shall thereupon deny, refuse renewal of, suspend, or revoke the credential or limit the ability of the credential holder to practice such profession in the state in such manner and to such extent as the director determines to be necessary for the protection of the public.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 18; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 65;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 57;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 20; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 393;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 49;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 23;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.13; Laws 2007, LB296, § 315;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 110.    


38-1,111. Credential; disciplinary action because of physical or mental disability; duration; when issued, returned, or reinstated; manner.

(1) The denial, refusal of renewal, limitation, or suspension of a credential as provided in section 38-1,110 shall continue in effect until reversed on appeal pursuant to section 38-1,113 or until the cause of such denial, refusal of renewal, limitation, or suspension no longer exists and the appropriate board finds, upon competent examination or evaluation by a qualified physician or other qualified professional selected or approved by the department, that the applicant or credential holder is qualified to engage in the practice of the profession. The cost of the examination or evaluation shall be paid by the applicant or credential holder.

(2) Upon such finding the director, notwithstanding the provision of any other statute, shall issue, return, or reinstate such credential or remove any limitation on such credential if the applicant or credential holder is otherwise qualified as determined by the appropriate board to practice or to continue in the practice of the profession.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 19; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 66;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 58;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 43;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 394;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 50;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.14; Laws 2007, LB296, § 316;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 111.    


38-1,112. Refusal to submit to physical or mental examination or chemical dependency evaluation; effect.

Refusal of an applicant or credential holder to submit to a physical or mental examination or chemical dependency evaluation requested by the appropriate board or the department pursuant to section 38-1,110 or 38-1,111 to determine his or her qualifications to practice or to continue in the practice of the profession for which application was made or for which he or she is credentialed by the department shall be just cause for denial of the application or for refusal of renewal or suspension of his or her credential automatically by the director until such examination or evaluation has been made.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 20; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 67;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 59;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 44;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 395;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 51;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.15; Laws 2007, LB463, § 112.    


38-1,113. Disciplinary action involving dependence or disability; appeal.

Any applicant or credential holder shall have the right to request a hearing on an order denying, refusing renewal of, limiting, suspending, or revoking a credential to practice a profession because of abuse of, dependence on, or active addiction to alcohol, any controlled substance, or any mind-altering substance that impairs the ability to practice the profession or illness, deterioration, or disability that impairs the ability to practice the profession. Such hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act. The denial, refusal of renewal, limitation, suspension, or revocation of a credential as provided in section 38-1,110 shall continue in effect until reversed on appeal unless otherwise disposed of pursuant to section 38-1,111.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 877, § 21; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 68;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 60;    Laws 1988, LB 352, § 115;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 21; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 396;    Laws 2001, LB 398, § 24;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-161.16; Laws 2007, LB296, § 317;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 113.    


Cross References

38-1,114. Practicing profession or business without credential; injunction.

Any person engaging in the practice of any profession or business without the appropriate credential may be restrained by temporary and permanent injunctions.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 63, p. 471; C.S.1929, § 71-801; Laws 1943, c. 150, § 17, p. 546; R.S.1943, § 71-164; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 48;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-164; Laws 2007, LB463, § 114.    


Annotations

38-1,115. Prima facie evidence of practice without being credentialed; conditions.

It shall be prima facie evidence of practice without being credentialed when any of the following conditions exist:

(1) The person admits to engaging in practice;

(2) Staffing records or other reports from the employer of the person indicate that the person was engaged in practice;

(3) Billing or payment records document the provision of service, care, or treatment by the person;

(4) Service, care, or treatment records document the provision of service, care, or treatment by the person;

(5) Appointment records indicate that the person was engaged in practice;

(6) Government records indicate that the person was engaged in practice; and

(7) The person opens a business or practice site and announces or advertises that the business or site is open to provide service, care, or treatment.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 115;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 51.    


38-1,116. Practicing without credential; operating business without credential; administrative penalty; procedure; disposition; attorney's fees and costs.

(1) The department may assess an administrative penalty of ten dollars per day for each day that evidence exists of practice prior to issuance, renewal after expiration, or reinstatement of a credential to practice a profession or operate a business. The total penalty shall not exceed one thousand dollars.

(2) When the department assesses an administrative penalty, the department shall provide written notice of the assessment to the person. The notice shall be delivered in the manner prescribed by the department and shall include notice of the opportunity for a hearing.

(3) The department shall, within thirty days after receipt, remit an administrative penalty to the State Treasurer to be disposed of in accordance with Article VII, section 5, of the Constitution of Nebraska. An administrative penalty assessed and unpaid under this section shall constitute a debt to the State of Nebraska which may be collected in the manner of a lien foreclosure or sued for and recovered in a proper form of action in the name of the state in the district court of the county in which the violator resides or owns property. The department may also collect in such action attorney's fees and costs incurred directly in the collection of the administrative penalty.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 29;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-164.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 116.    


38-1,117. False impersonation; fraud; aiding and abetting; use of false documents; penalty.

Any person who (1) presents to the department a document which is false or of which he or she is not the rightful owner for the purpose of procuring a credential, (2) falsely impersonates anyone to whom a credential has been issued by the department, (3) falsely holds himself or herself out to be a person credentialed by the department, (4) aids and abets another who is not credentialed to practice a profession that requires a credential, or (5) files or attempts to file with the department any false or forged diploma, certificate, or affidavit of identification or qualification shall be guilty of a Class IV felony.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 65, p. 471; C.S.1929, § 71-803; R.S.1943, § 71-166; Laws 1977, LB 39, § 141;    Laws 1986, LB 286, § 73;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 65;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 38;    Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 49;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-166; Laws 2007, LB463, § 117.    


38-1,118. General violations; penalty; second offenses; penalty.

Any person violating any of the provisions of the Uniform Credentialing Act, except as specific penalties are otherwise imposed in the act, shall be guilty of a Class III misdemeanor. Any person for a second violation of any of the provisions of the act, for which another specific penalty is not expressly imposed, shall be guilty of a Class II misdemeanor.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 66, p. 471; C.S.1929, § 71-804; R.S.1943, § 71-167; Laws 1977, LB 39, § 142;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-167; Laws 2007, LB463, § 118.    


Annotations

38-1,119. Certain professions and businesses; sections applicable; initial credential; renewal of credential; denial or refusal to renew; department; powers.

(1) Sections 38-1,119 to 38-1,123 apply to the following professions and businesses: Asbestos abatement, inspection, project design, and training; lead-based paint abatement, inspection, project design, and training; medical radiography; and radon detection, measurement, and mitigation.

(2) If an applicant for an initial credential to practice a profession or operate a business does not meet all of the requirements for the credential, the department shall deny issuance of the credential. If an applicant for an initial credential or a credential holder applying for renewal of the credential has committed any of the acts set out in section 38-178 or 38-182, as applicable, the department may deny issuance or refuse renewal of the credential or may issue or renew the credential subject to any of the terms imposed under section 38-196 in order to protect the public.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 119;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 52.    


38-1,120. Certain professions and businesses; disciplinary actions; grounds; advice of board; notice; hearing; director; decision; review.

(1) A credential to practice a profession or operate a business subject to section 38-1,119 may be denied, refused renewal, or have disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-196 on any of the grounds set out in section 38-178 or 38-182, as applicable. The department shall obtain the advice of the appropriate board in carrying out these duties. If the department determines to deny, refuse renewal of, or take disciplinary action against a credential, the department shall send to the applicant or credential holder a notice to the last address of record. The notice shall state the determination of the department, the reasons for the determination, a description of the nature of the violation and the statute, rule, or regulation violated, and the nature of the action being taken. The denial, refusal to renew, or disciplinary action shall become final thirty days after the mailing of the notice unless the applicant or credential holder, during such thirty-day period, makes a written request for a hearing.

(2) The hearing shall be held according to rules and regulations of the department for administrative hearings in contested cases. Witnesses may be subpoenaed by either party and shall be allowed fees at a rate prescribed by rule and regulation. On the basis of such hearing, the director shall affirm, modify, or rescind the determination of the department. Any party to the decision shall have a right to judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 120.    


Cross References

38-1,121. Certain professions and businesses; disciplinary actions; confidentiality; immunity.

A complaint submitted to the department regarding a credential holder subject to section 38-1,119 and the identity of any person making the complaint or providing information leading to the making of the complaint shall be confidential. Such persons shall be immune from criminal or civil liability of any nature, whether direct or derivative, for filing a complaint or for disclosure of documents, records, or other information to the department.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 121;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 5.    


38-1,122. Certain professions and businesses; disciplinary actions; emergency; department; powers; hearing; director; decision; review.

(1) If the department determines that an emergency exists requiring immediate action against a credential subject to section 38-1,119, the department may, without notice or hearing, issue an order reciting the existence of such emergency and requiring such action be taken as the department deems necessary to meet the emergency, including, but not limited to, suspension or limitation of the credential. Such order shall become effective immediately. Any credential holder to whom such order is directed shall comply immediately. Such order shall become final ten days after mailing of the order unless the credential holder, during such period, makes a written request for a hearing.

(2) The hearing shall be held as soon as possible and not later than fifteen days after the request for hearing. The hearing shall be held according to rules and regulations of the department for administrative hearings in contested cases. Witnesses may be subpoenaed by either party and shall be allowed fees at a rate prescribed by rule and regulation. On the basis of such hearing, the director shall affirm, modify, or rescind the order. Any party to the decision shall have a right to judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 122.    


Cross References

38-1,123. Certain professions and businesses; disciplinary actions; costs; how paid.

If an order issued after a hearing under section 38-1,120 or 38-1,122 is adverse to the credential holder, the costs shall be charged to him or her as in ordinary civil actions in the district court, but if the department is the unsuccessful party, the department shall pay the costs. Witness fees and costs may be taxed according to the rules prevailing in the district court. All costs accrued at the instance of the department when it is the successful party, which the department certifies cannot be collected from the other party, shall be paid out of any available funds in the Professional and Occupational Credentialing Cash Fund.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 123.    


38-1,124. Enforcement; investigations; violations; credential holder; duty to report; cease and desist order; violation; penalty; loss or theft of controlled substance; duty to report.

(1) The department shall enforce the Uniform Credentialing Act and for that purpose shall make necessary investigations. Every credential holder and every member of a board shall furnish the department such evidence as he or she may have relative to any alleged violation which is being investigated.

(2) Every credential holder shall report to the department the name of every person without a credential that he or she has reason to believe is engaged in practicing any profession or operating any business for which a credential is required by the Uniform Credentialing Act. The department may, along with the Attorney General and other law enforcement agencies, investigate such reports or other complaints of unauthorized practice. The director, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, may issue an order to cease and desist the unauthorized practice of such profession or the unauthorized operation of such business as a measure to obtain compliance with the applicable credentialing requirements by the person prior to referral of the matter to the Attorney General for action. Practice of such profession or operation of such business without a credential after receiving a cease and desist order is a Class III felony.

(3) Any credential holder who is required to file a report of loss or theft of a controlled substance to the federal Drug Enforcement Administration shall provide a copy of such report to the department. This subsection shall not apply to pharmacist interns or pharmacy technicians.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 67, p. 472; C.S.1929, § 71-901; R.S.1943, § 71-168; Laws 1986, LB 286, § 74;    Laws 1986, LB 579, § 66;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 23; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 50;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 10;    Laws 1995, LB 563, § 2;    Laws 1996, LB 414, § 1;    Laws 1997, LB 138, § 42;    Laws 1997, LB 222, § 4;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 55;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 12;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 21;    Laws 2005, LB 306, § 3;    Laws 2005, LB 361, § 32;    Laws 2005, LB 382, § 5;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-168; Laws 2007, LB236, § 7;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 124;    Laws 2016, LB859, § 2;    Laws 2017, LB166, § 7.    


38-1,125. Credential holder except pharmacist intern and pharmacy technician; incompetent, gross negligent, or unprofessional conduct; impaired or disabled person; duty to report.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 38-2897, every credential holder shall, within thirty days of an occurrence described in this subsection, report to the department in such manner and form as the department may require whenever he or she:

(a) Has first-hand knowledge of facts giving him or her reason to believe that any person in his or her profession:

(i) Has acted with gross incompetence or gross negligence;

(ii) Has engaged in a pattern of incompetent or negligent conduct as defined in section 38-177;

(iii) Has engaged in unprofessional conduct as defined in section 38-179;

(iv) Has been practicing while his or her ability to practice is impaired by alcohol, controlled substances, mind-altering substances, or physical, mental, or emotional disability; or

(v) Has otherwise violated the regulatory provisions governing the practice of the profession;

(b) Has first-hand knowledge of facts giving him or her reason to believe that any person in another profession:

(i) Has acted with gross incompetence or gross negligence; or

(ii) Has been practicing while his or her ability to practice is impaired by alcohol, controlled substances, mind-altering substances, or physical, mental, or emotional disability; or

(c) Has been the subject of any of the following actions:

(i) Loss of privileges in a hospital or other health care facility due to alleged incompetence, negligence, unethical or unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment or the voluntary limitation of privileges or resignation from the staff of any health care facility when that occurred while under formal or informal investigation or evaluation by the facility or a committee of the facility for issues of clinical competence, unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment;

(ii) Loss of employment due to alleged incompetence, negligence, unethical or unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment;

(iii) An adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising out of a professional liability claim, including a settlement made prior to suit in which the consumer releases any professional liability claim against the credentialed person, or adverse action by an insurance company affecting professional liability coverage. The department may define what constitutes a settlement that would be reportable when a credential holder refunds or reduces a fee or makes no charge for reasons related to a consumer complaint other than costs;

(iv) Denial of a credential or other form of authorization to practice by any jurisdiction due to alleged incompetence, negligence, unethical or unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment;

(v) Disciplinary action against any credential or other form of permit he or she holds taken by any jurisdiction, the settlement of such action, or any voluntary surrender of or limitation on any such credential or other form of permit;

(vi) Loss of membership in, or discipline of a credential related to the applicable profession by, a professional organization due to alleged incompetence, negligence, unethical or unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment; or

(vii) Conviction of any misdemeanor or felony in this or any other jurisdiction.

(2) The requirement to file a report under subdivision (1)(a) or (b) of this section shall not apply:

(a) To the spouse of the credential holder;

(b) To a practitioner who is providing treatment to such credential holder in a practitioner-consumer relationship concerning information obtained or discovered in the course of treatment unless the treating practitioner determines that the condition of the credential holder may be of a nature which constitutes a danger to the public health and safety by the credential holder's continued practice;

(c) When a credential holder who is chemically impaired enters the Licensee Assistance Program authorized by section 38-175 except as otherwise provided in such section; or

(d) To a credential holder who is providing coaching, training, or mentoring services to another credential holder through a physician wellness program as defined in section 38-1,148 except as otherwise provided in section 38-1,148.

(3) A report submitted by a professional liability insurance company on behalf of a credential holder within the thirty-day period prescribed in subsection (1) of this section shall be sufficient to satisfy the credential holder's reporting requirement under subsection (1) of this section.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 61;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 125;    Laws 2017, LB166, § 8;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 22.    


38-1,126. Report; confidential; immunity; use of documents.

(1) A report made to the department under section 38-1,124 or 38-1,125 shall be confidential. The identity of any person making such report or providing information leading to the making of such report shall be confidential.

(2) Any person making such a report to the department, except a person who is self-reporting, shall be completely immune from criminal or civil liability of any nature, whether direct or derivative, for filing a report or for disclosure of documents, records, or other information to the department under section 38-1,124 or 38-1,125.

(3) Persons who are members of committees established under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, the Patient Safety Improvement Act, or section 25-12,123 or witnesses before such committees shall not be required to report under section 38-1,124 or 38-1,125. Any person who is a witness before such a committee shall not be excused from reporting matters of first-hand knowledge that would otherwise be reportable under section 38-1,124 or 38-1,125 only because he or she attended or testified before such committee.

(4) Documents from original sources shall not be construed as immune from discovery or use in actions under section 38-1,125.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 126;    Laws 2011, LB431, § 12;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 6.    


Cross References

38-1,127. Health care facility, peer review organization, or professional association; violations; duty to report; confidentiality; immunity; civil penalty.

(1) A health care facility licensed under the Health Care Facility Licensure Act or a peer review organization or professional association of a profession regulated under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall report to the department, on a form and in the manner specified by the department, any facts known to the facility, organization, or association, including, but not limited to, the identity of the credential holder and consumer, when the facility, organization, or association:

(a) Has made payment due to adverse judgment, settlement, or award of a professional liability claim against it or a credential holder, including settlements made prior to suit, arising out of the acts or omissions of the credential holder; or

(b) Takes action adversely affecting the privileges or membership of a credential holder in such facility, organization, or association due to alleged incompetence, professional negligence, unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment.

The report shall be made within thirty days after the date of the action or event.

(2) A report made to the department under this section shall be confidential. The facility, organization, association, or person making such report shall be completely immune from criminal or civil liability of any nature, whether direct or derivative, for filing a report or for disclosure of documents, records, or other information to the department under this section. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require production of records protected by the Health Care Quality Improvement Act or section 25-12,123 or patient safety work product under the Patient Safety Improvement Act except as otherwise provided in either of such acts or such section.

(3) Any health care facility, peer review organization, or professional association that fails or neglects to make a report or provide information as required under this section is subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars for the first offense and a civil penalty of up to one thousand dollars for a subsequent offense. Any civil penalty collected under this subsection shall be remitted to the State Treasurer to be disposed of in accordance with Article VII, section 5, of the Constitution of Nebraska.

(4) For purposes of this section, the department shall accept reports made to it under the Nebraska Hospital-Medical Liability Act or in accordance with national practitioner data bank requirements of the federal Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986, as the act existed on January 1, 2007, and may require a supplemental report to the extent such reports do not contain the information required by the department.

Source:Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 12;    Laws 1995, LB 563, § 3;    Laws 1996, LB 414, § 2;    Laws 1997, LB 138, § 43;    Laws 1997, LB 222, § 5;    Laws 2000, LB 819, § 84;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 13;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 22;    Laws 2005, LB 361, § 33;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-168.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 127;    Laws 2011, LB431, § 13.    


Cross References

38-1,128. Peer review committee; health practitioners; immunity from liability; when.

No member of a peer review committee of a state or local association or society composed of persons credentialed under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall be liable in damages to any person for slander, libel, defamation of character, breach of any privileged communication, or otherwise for any action taken or recommendation made within the scope of the functions of such committee, if such committee member acts without malice and in the reasonable belief that such action or recommendation is warranted by the facts known to such member after a reasonable effort is made to obtain the facts on which such action is taken or recommendation is made.

Source:Laws 1976, LB 586, § 1; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-147.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 128.    


38-1,129. Insurer; report violation to department; confidentiality.

Unless such knowledge or information is based on confidential medical records protected by the confidentiality provisions of the federal Public Health Services Act, 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2, and federal administrative rules and regulations, as such act and rules and regulations existed on January 1, 2007:

(1) Any insurer having knowledge of any violation of any of the Uniform Credentialing Act governing the profession of the person being reported whether or not such person is credentialed shall report the facts of such violation as known to such insurer to the department; and

(2) All insurers shall cooperate with the department and provide such information as requested by the department concerning any possible violations by any person required to be credentialed whether or not such person is credentialed.

The identity of any person making such report on behalf of an insurer or providing information leading to the making of such report shall be confidential.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 2;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 20;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 133;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,199; Laws 2007, LB463, § 129;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 7.    


38-1,130. Insurer; report to department; form; confidentiality.

Any insurer shall report to the department, on a form and in the manner specified by the department by rule and regulation, any facts known to the insurer, including, but not limited to, the identity of the credential holder and consumer, when the insurer:

(1) Has reasonable grounds to believe that a person required to be credentialed has committed a violation of the provisions of the Uniform Credentialing Act governing the profession of such person whether or not such person is credentialed;

(2) Has made payment due to an adverse judgment, settlement, or award resulting from a professional liability claim against the insurer, a health care facility or health care service as defined in the Health Care Facility Licensure Act, or a person required to be credentialed whether or not such person is credentialed, including settlements made prior to suit in which the consumer releases any professional liability claim against the insurer, health care facility or health care service, or person required to be credentialed, arising out of the acts or omissions of such person;

(3) Takes an adverse action affecting the coverage provided by the insurer to a person required to be credentialed, whether or not such person is credentialed, due to alleged incompetence, negligence, unethical or unprofessional conduct, or physical, mental, or chemical impairment. For purposes of this section, adverse action does not include raising rates for professional liability coverage unless it is based upon grounds that would be reportable and no prior report has been made to the department; or

(4) Has been requested by the department to provide information.

The identity of any person making such report on behalf of an insurer or providing information leading to the making of such report shall be confidential.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 3;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 30; Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 21;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 134;    Laws 2000, LB 819, § 93;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,200; Laws 2007, LB152, § 1;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 62;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 130;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 8.    


Cross References

38-1,131. Insurer; report to department; when.

A report made under section 38-1,129 or 38-1,130 shall be made within thirty days after the date of the violation, action, event, or request. Nothing in such sections shall be construed to require an insurer to report based on information gained due to the filing of a claim for payment under a health insurance policy by or on behalf of a person required to be credentialed whether or not such person is credentialed.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 131.    


38-1,132. Insurer; alternative reports authorized; supplemental report.

For purposes of sections 38-1,129 and 38-1,130, the department shall accept reports made to it under the Nebraska Hospital-Medical Liability Act or in accordance with national practitioner data bank requirements of the federal Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986, as such act existed on January 1, 2007, and may require a supplemental report to the extent such reports do not contain the information required by the department. For purposes of sections 38-1,129 and 38-1,130, the department shall accept a copy of a report made to any governmental agency charged by law with carrying out any of the provisions of the Uniform Credentialing Act or any person authorized by law to make arrests within the State of Nebraska and may require a supplemental report to the extent such copy does not contain the information required by the department.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 132.    


Cross References

38-1,133. Insurer; failure to make report or provide information; penalty.

Any insurer who fails or neglects to make a report to or provide such information as requested by the department pursuant to section 38-1,129 or 38-1,130 within thirty days after the violation, action, event, or request is guilty of a Class III misdemeanor. Any insurer who violates this section a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class II misdemeanor.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 4;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 135;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,201; Laws 2007, LB463, § 133.    


38-1,134. Insurer; reports; disclosure restricted; confidentiality.

To the extent that reports made under section 38-1,129 or 38-1,130 contain or relate to privileged communications between consumer and credential holder, such reports shall be treated by the department as privileged communications and shall be considered to be part of the investigational records of the department. Such reports may not be obtained by legal discovery proceedings or otherwise disclosed unless the privilege is waived by the consumer involved or the reports are made part of the record in a contested case under section 38-186, in which case such reports shall only be disclosed to the extent they are made a part of such record. The identity of any person making such report or providing information leading to the making of such report shall be confidential.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 5;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 31; Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 22;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,202; Laws 2007, LB463, § 134;    Laws 2016, LB750, § 9.    


38-1,135. Insurer; immunity from liability.

Any insurer or employee of an insurer making a report as required by section 38-1,129 or 38-1,130 shall be immune from criminal penalty of any kind or from civil liability or other penalty for slander, libel, defamation, breach of the privilege between consumer and physician or between consumer and professional counselor, or violation of the laws of the State of Nebraska relating to the business of insurance that may be incurred or imposed on account of or in connection with the making of such report.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 7;    Laws 1993, LB 130, § 5;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 23;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,204; Laws 2007, LB463, § 135.    


38-1,136. Violation of credential holder-consumer privilege; sections, how construed.

Nothing contained in sections 38-1,129 to 38-1,136 shall be construed so as to require any credential holder to violate a privilege between a credential holder and a consumer.

Source:Laws 1982, LB 421, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,205; Laws 2007, LB463, § 136.    


38-1,137. Clerk of county or district court; report convictions and judgments of credentialed person; Attorney General or prosecutor; duty.

The clerk of any county or district court in this state shall report to the department the conviction of any person credentialed by the department under the Uniform Credentialing Act of any felony or of any misdemeanor involving the use, sale, distribution, administration, or dispensing of a controlled substance, alcohol or chemical impairment, or substance abuse and shall also report a judgment against any such credential holder arising out of a claim of professional liability. The Attorney General or city or county prosecutor prosecuting any such criminal action and plaintiff in any such civil action shall provide the court with information concerning the credential of the defendant or party. Notice to the department shall be filed within thirty days after the date of conviction or judgment in a manner agreed to by the director and the State Court Administrator.

Source:Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 24;    Laws 1995, LB 563, § 39;    Laws 1996, LB 414, § 10;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 480;    Laws 1997, LB 138, § 45;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 24;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 32;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,339; Laws 2007, LB296, § 362;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 137.    


38-1,138. Complaint; investigation; confidentiality; immunity; department; powers and duties.

(1) Any person may make a complaint and request investigation of an alleged violation of the Uniform Credentialing Act or rules and regulations issued under such act. A complaint submitted to the department shall be confidential, and a person making a complaint shall be immune from criminal or civil liability of any nature, whether direct or derivative, for filing a complaint or for disclosure of documents, records, or other information to the department.

(2) The department shall review all complaints and determine whether to conduct an investigation and in making such determination may consider factors such as:

(a) Whether the complaint pertains to a matter within the authority of the department to enforce;

(b) Whether the circumstances indicate that a complaint is made in good faith and is not malicious, frivolous, or vexatious;

(c) Whether the complaint is timely or has been delayed too long to justify present evaluation of its merit;

(d) Whether the complainant may be a necessary witness if action is taken and is willing to identify himself or herself and come forward to testify; or

(e) Whether the information provided or within the knowledge of the complainant is sufficient to provide a reasonable basis to believe that a violation has occurred or to secure necessary evidence from other sources.

Source:Laws 1991, LB 456, § 6; Laws 1993, LB 536, § 46;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 11;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 56;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-168.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 138.    


38-1,139. Violations; prosecution; duty of Attorney General and county attorney.

Upon the request of the department, the Attorney General shall institute in the name of the state the proper civil or criminal proceedings against any person regarding whom a complaint has been made, charging him or her with violation of any of the provisions of the Uniform Credentialing Act, and the county attorney, at the request of the Attorney General or of the department, shall appear and prosecute such action when brought in his or her county.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 70, p. 472; C.S.1929, § 71-904; R.S.1943, § 71-171; Laws 1991, LB 456, § 24; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-171; Laws 2007, LB463, § 139.    


38-1,140. Consultation with licensed veterinarian; conduct authorized.

Any person who holds a valid credential in the State of Nebraska in a health care profession or occupation regulated under the Uniform Credentialing Act may consult with a licensed veterinarian or perform collaborative animal health care tasks on an animal under the care of such veterinarian if all such tasks are performed under the immediate supervision of such veterinarian. Engaging in such conduct is hereby authorized and shall not be considered a part of the credential holder's scope of practice or a violation of the credential holder's scope of practice.

Source:Laws 2008, LB928, § 3;    Laws 2009, LB463, § 1.    


38-1,141. Military education, training, or service; department; acceptance for credential.

Beginning December 15, 2015, upon presentation of satisfactory evidence that the education, training, or service completed by an applicant for a credential while a member of the armed forces of the United States, active or reserve, the National Guard of any state, the military reserves of any state, or the naval militia of any state is substantially similar to the education required for the credential, the department, with the recommendation of the appropriate board, if any, shall accept such education, training, or service toward the minimum standards for the credential.

Source:Laws 2015, LB264, § 3.    


38-1,142. Report to department; discrimination or retaliation prohibited; action for relief authorized.

An individual or a business credentialed pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act shall not discriminate or retaliate against any person who has initiated or participated in the making of a report under the act to the department. Such person may maintain an action for any type of relief, including injunctive and declaratory relief, permitted by law.

Source:Laws 2016, LB750, § 2.    


38-1,143. Telehealth; provider-patient relationship; prescription authority; applicability of section.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4) of this section, any credential holder under the Uniform Credentialing Act may establish a provider-patient relationship through telehealth.

(2) Any credential holder under the Uniform Credentialing Act who is providing a telehealth service to a patient may prescribe the patient a drug if the credential holder is authorized to prescribe under state and federal law.

(3) The department may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations pursuant to section 38-126 that are consistent with this section.

(4) This section does not apply to a credential holder under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, the Dialysis Patient Care Technician Registration Act, the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act, the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act, the Massage Therapy Practice Act, the Medical Radiography Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrator Practice Act, the Perfusion Practice Act, the Surgical First Assistant Practice Act, or the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2019, LB29, § 2;    Laws 2021, LB148, § 53.    


Cross References

38-1,144. Schedule II controlled substance or other opiate; practitioner; duties.

(1) For purposes of this section, practitioner means a physician, a physician assistant, a dentist, a pharmacist, a podiatrist, an optometrist, a certified nurse midwife, a certified registered nurse anesthetist, and a nurse practitioner.

(2) When prescribing a controlled substance listed in Schedule II of section 28-405 or any other opiate as defined in section 28-401 not listed in Schedule II, prior to issuing the practitioner's initial prescription for a course of treatment for acute or chronic pain, a practitioner involved in the course of treatment as the primary prescribing practitioner or as a member of the patient's care team who is under the direct supervision or in consultation with the primary prescribing practitioner shall discuss with the patient, or the patient's parent or guardian if the patient is younger than eighteen years of age and is not emancipated, unless the discussion has already occurred with another member of the patient's care team within the previous sixty days:

(a) The risks of addiction and overdose associated with the controlled substance or opiate being prescribed, including, but not limited to:

(i) Controlled substances and opiates are highly addictive even when taken as prescribed;

(ii) There is a risk of developing a physical or psychological dependence on the controlled substance or opiate; and

(iii) Taking more controlled substances or opiates than prescribed, or mixing sedatives, benzodiazepines, or alcohol with controlled substances or opiates, can result in fatal respiratory depression;

(b) The reasons why the prescription is necessary; and

(c) Alternative treatments that may be available.

(3) This section does not apply to a prescription for a hospice patient or for a course of treatment for cancer or palliative care.

(4) This section terminates on January 1, 2029.

Source:Laws 2018, LB931, § 3;    R.S.Supp.,2018, § 28-473; Laws 2019, LB556, § 2.    


38-1,145. Opiates; legislative findings; limitation on certain prescriptions; practitioner; duties.

(1) For purposes of this section, practitioner means a physician, a physician assistant, a dentist, a pharmacist, a podiatrist, an optometrist, a certified nurse midwife, a certified registered nurse anesthetist, and a nurse practitioner.

(2) The Legislature finds that:

(a) In most cases, acute pain can be treated effectively with nonopiate or nonpharmacological options;

(b) With a more severe or acute injury, short-term use of opiates may be appropriate;

(c) Initial opiate prescriptions for children should not exceed seven days for most situations, and two or three days of opiates will often be sufficient;

(d) If a patient needs medication beyond three days, the prescriber should reevaluate the patient prior to issuing another prescription for opiates; and

(e) Physical dependence on opiates can occur within only a few weeks of continuous use, so great caution needs to be exercised during this critical recovery period.

(3) A practitioner who is prescribing an opiate as defined in section 28-401 for a patient younger than eighteen years of age for outpatient use for an acute condition shall not prescribe more than a seven-day supply except as otherwise provided in subsection (4) of this section and, if the practitioner has not previously prescribed an opiate for such patient, shall discuss with a parent or guardian of such patient, or with the patient if the patient is an emancipated minor, the risks associated with use of opiates and the reasons why the prescription is necessary.

(4) If, in the professional medical judgment of the practitioner, more than a seven-day supply of an opiate is required to treat such patient's medical condition or is necessary for the treatment of pain associated with a cancer diagnosis or for palliative care, the practitioner may issue a prescription for the quantity needed to treat such patient's medical condition or pain. The practitioner shall document the medical condition triggering the prescription of more than a seven-day supply of an opiate in the patient's medical record and shall indicate that a nonopiate alternative was not appropriate to address the medical condition.

(5) This section does not apply to controlled substances prescribed pursuant to section 28-412.

(6) This section terminates on January 1, 2029.

Source:Laws 2018, LB931, § 4;    R.S.Supp.,2018, § 28-474; Laws 2019, LB556, § 3.    


38-1,146. Prescription; issuance; requirements; applicability.

(1) For purposes of this section, prescriber means a health care practitioner authorized to prescribe controlled substances in the practice for which credentialed under the Uniform Credentialing Act.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) or (6) of this section, no prescriber shall, in this state, issue any prescription as defined in section 38-2840 for a controlled substance as defined in section 28-401 unless such prescription is issued (a) using electronic prescription technology, (b) from the prescriber issuing the prescription to a pharmacy, and (c) in accordance with all requirements of state law and the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated pursuant to such state law.

(3) The requirements of subsection (2) of this section shall not apply to prescriptions:

(a) Issued by veterinarians;

(b) Issued in circumstances where electronic prescribing is not available due to temporary technological or electrical failure;

(c) Issued when the prescriber and the dispenser are the same entity;

(d) Issued that include elements that are not supported by the Prescriber/Pharmacist Interface SCRIPT Standard of the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs as such standard existed on January 1, 2021;

(e) Issued for a drug for which the federal Food and Drug Administration requires the prescription to contain certain elements that are not able to be accomplished with electronic prescribing;

(f) Issued for dispensing a non-patient-specific prescription which is (i) an approved protocol for drug therapy or (ii) in response to a public health emergency;

(g) Issued for a drug for purposes of a research protocol;

(h) Issued under circumstances in which, notwithstanding the prescriber's ability to make an electronic prescription as required by this section, such prescriber reasonably determines (i) that it would be impractical for the patient to obtain substances prescribed by electronic prescription in a timely manner and (ii) that such delay would adversely impact the patient's medical condition;

(i) Issued for drugs requiring compounding; or

(j) Issued by a prescriber who issues fewer than fifty prescriptions in one calendar year otherwise subject to subsection (2) of this section.

(4) A pharmacist who receives a written, oral, or faxed prescription is not required to verify that the prescription falls under one of the exceptions listed in subsection (3) of this section. A pharmacist may continue to dispense medication from any otherwise valid written, oral, or faxed prescription consistent with the law and rules and regulations as they existed prior to January 1, 2022.

(5) A violation of this section shall not be grounds for disciplinary action under the Uniform Credentialing Act.

(6) A dentist shall not be subject to this section until January 1, 2024.

Source:Laws 2021, LB583, § 4;    Laws 2024, LB1215, § 7.    
Operative Date: July 19, 2024


38-1,147. Stem-cell-based therapy; informed written consent; required.

(1) For purposes of this section:

(a) Health care practitioner means a person licensed or certified under the Uniform Credentialing Act;

(b) Human stem cells means human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products, as defined in 21 C.F.R. 1271.3 as amended August 31, 2016, as published in the Federal Register at 81 Fed. Reg. 60223;

(c) Informed written consent related to stem-cell-based therapy means a signed writing executed by a patient that confirms that (i) a health care practitioner has explained the treatment, (ii) the treatment has not received the approval of the United States Food and Drug Administration, including for experimental use, and (iii) the patient understands that the treatment has not received such approval; and

(d) Stem-cell-based therapy means treatment using products derived from human stem cells.

(2) Any health care practitioner who performs stem-cell-based therapy shall, by informed written consent, communicate to any patient seeking stem-cell-based therapy from such practitioner that it is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(3) This section does not apply to a health care practitioner using stem-cell-based therapy products that are approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or stem-cell-based therapy for which the health care practitioner obtained approval for an investigational new drug or device from the United States Food and Drug Administration for use of human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based products.

Source:Laws 2022, LB752, § 6.    


38-1,148. Physician wellness program; participation; record; confidential; exception; disclosure not required, when.

(1) For purposes of this section:

(a) Physician peer coach means any health care provider licensed to practice medicine or surgery who provides coaching, training, or mentoring through a physician wellness program to another health care provider licensed to practice medicine or surgery under the Uniform Credentialing Act or to a student of an accredited school or college of medicine; and

(b) Physician wellness program means a program that (i) provides coaching, training, and mentoring services by physician peer coaches or coaches certified by a nationally recognized credentialing program for coach practitioners for the purpose of addressing issues related to career fatigue and wellness for individuals licensed to practice medicine and surgery under the Uniform Credentialing Act and students of an accredited school or college of medicine and (ii) is established, organized, or contracted by any statewide association exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 that primarily represents health care providers in multiple specialties who are licensed to practice medicine and surgery under the Uniform Credentialing Act. A physician wellness program does not include a program of evaluation, monitoring, treatment, or referral.

(2) Any record of a person's participation in a physician wellness program is confidential and not subject to discovery, subpoena, or a reporting requirement to the department unless the person voluntarily requests release of the information in writing or the physician peer coach determines that the person's condition constitutes a danger to the public health and safety by the person's continued practice of medicine or surgery.

(3) A person who contacts or participates in a physician wellness program shall not be required to disclose such contact or participation to any health care facility, hospital, medical staff person, accreditation organization, graduate medical education oversight body, health insurer, government agency, or other entity as a condition of participation, employment, credentialing, payment, licensure, compliance, or other requirement.

Source:Laws 2023, LB227, § 16.    


38-201. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-201 to 38-213 shall be known and may be cited as the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 36;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,131; Laws 2007, LB463, § 140;    Laws 2022, LB905, § 1.    


38-202. Legislative findings and declarations.

The Legislature finds and declares that:

(1) Because of the geographic maldistribution of health care services in Nebraska, it is necessary to utilize the skills and proficiency of existing health professionals more efficiently;

(2) It is necessary to encourage the more effective utilization of the skills of registered nurses by enabling them to perform advanced roles in nursing; and

(3) The purpose of the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act is to encourage registered nurses to perform advanced roles in nursing.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 37;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,132; Laws 2007, LB463, § 141.    


38-203. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-204 to 38-204.04 apply.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 38;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,133; Laws 2007, LB463, § 142;    Laws 2022, LB905, § 2.    


38-204. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 143.    


38-204.01. Perinatal mental health disorder, defined.

Perinatal mental health disorder means a mental health condition that occurs during pregnancy or during the postpartum period, including depression, anxiety, or postpartum psychosis.

Source:Laws 2022, LB905, § 3.    


38-204.02. Postnatal care, defined.

Postnatal care means an office visit to an advanced practice registered nurse occurring after birth, with reference to the infant or mother.

Source:Laws 2022, LB905, § 4.    


38-204.03. Prenatal care, defined.

Prenatal care means an office visit to an advanced practice registered nurse for pregnancy-related care occurring before birth.

Source:Laws 2022, LB905, § 5.    


38-204.04. Questionnaire, defined.

Questionnaire means a screening tool administered by an advanced practice registered nurse to detect perinatal mental health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or other validated screening methods.

Source:Laws 2022, LB905, § 6.    


38-205. Board; members; qualifications; terms.

(1) Until July 1, 2007, the board shall consist of (a) five advanced practice registered nurses representing different advanced practice registered nurse specialties for which a license has been issued, (b) five physicians licensed under the Uniform Licensing Law to practice medicine in Nebraska, at least three of whom shall have a current collaborating relationship with an advanced practice registered nurse, (c) three consumer members, and (d) one licensed pharmacist.

(2) On and after July 1, 2007, the board shall consist of:

(a) One nurse practitioner holding a license under the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act, one certified nurse midwife holding a license under the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, one certified registered nurse anesthetist holding a license under the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, and one clinical nurse specialist holding a license under the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, except that the initial clinical nurse specialist appointee may be a clinical nurse specialist practicing pursuant to the Nurse Practice Act as such act existed prior to July 1, 2007. Of the initial appointments under this subdivision, one shall be for a two-year term, one shall be for a three-year term, one shall be for a four-year term, and one shall be for a five-year term. All subsequent appointments under this subdivision shall be for five-year terms;

(b) Three physicians, one of whom shall have a professional relationship with a nurse practitioner, one of whom shall have a professional relationship with a certified nurse midwife, and one of whom shall have a professional relationship with a certified registered nurse anesthetist. Of the initial appointments under this subdivision, one shall be for a three-year term, one shall be for a four-year term, and one shall be for a five-year term. All subsequent appointments under this subdivision shall be for five-year terms; and

(c) Two public members. Of the initial appointments under this subdivision, one shall be for a three-year term, and one shall be for a four-year term. All subsequent appointments under this subdivision shall be for five-year terms.

(3) Members of the board serving immediately before July 1, 2007, shall serve until members are appointed and qualified under subsection (2) of this section.

Source:Laws 1996, LB 414, § 27;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 42;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1718.01; Laws 2005, LB 256, § 39;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,134; Laws 2007, LB185, § 36;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 144.    


Cross References

38-206. Board; duties.

The board shall:

(1) Establish standards for integrated practice agreements between collaborating physicians and certified nurse midwives;

(2) Monitor the scope of practice by certified nurse midwives, certified registered nurse anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, and nurse practitioners;

(3) Recommend disciplinary action relating to licenses of advanced practice registered nurses, certified nurse midwives, certified registered nurse anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, and nurse practitioners;

(4) Engage in other activities not inconsistent with the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act, the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, and the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act; and

(5) Adopt rules and regulations to implement the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act, the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, and the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act, for promulgation by the department as provided in section 38-126. Such rules and regulations shall also include: (a) Approved certification organizations and approved certification programs; and (b) professional liability insurance.

Source:Laws 1996, LB 414, § 28;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 43;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 56;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1718.02; Laws 2005, LB 256, § 40;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,135; Laws 2007, LB185, § 37;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 145;    Laws 2015, LB107, § 1.    


Cross References

38-207. License; issuance; department; powers and duties.

The department shall issue a license as an advanced practice registered nurse to a registered nurse who meets the requirements of subsection (1) or (3) of section 38-208. The department may issue a license as an advanced practice registered nurse to a registered nurse pursuant to subsection (2) of section 38-208.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 41;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,136; Laws 2007, LB463, § 146.    


38-208. License; qualifications; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) An applicant for initial licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse shall:

(a) Be licensed as a registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act or have authority based on the Nurse Licensure Compact to practice as a registered nurse in Nebraska;

(b) Be a graduate of or have completed a graduate-level advanced practice registered nurse program in a clinical specialty area of certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse midwife, or nurse practitioner, which program is accredited by a national accrediting body;

(c) Be certified as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse midwife, or a nurse practitioner, by an approved certifying body or an alternative method of competency assessment approved by the board, pursuant to the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, or the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act, as appropriate to the applicant's educational preparation;

(d) Provide evidence as required by rules and regulations; and

(e) Have committed no acts or omissions which are grounds for disciplinary action in another jurisdiction or, if such acts have been committed and would be grounds for discipline under the Nurse Practice Act, the board has found after investigation that sufficient restitution has been made.

(2) The department may issue a license under this section to an applicant who holds a license from another jurisdiction if the licensure requirements of such other jurisdiction meet or exceed the requirements for licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act. An applicant under this subsection shall submit documentation as required by rules and regulations.

(3) A person licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse or certified as a certified registered nurse anesthetist or a certified nurse midwife in this state on July 1, 2007, shall be issued a license by the department as an advanced practice registered nurse on such date.

(4) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 42;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,137; Laws 2007, LB185, § 38;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 147;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 35.    


Cross References

38-209. License; renewal; requirements.

The license of each person licensed under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act shall be renewed at the same time and in the same manner as renewal of a license for a registered nurse and shall require that the applicant have (1) a license as a registered nurse issued by the state or have the authority based on the Nurse Licensure Compact to practice as a registered nurse in Nebraska, (2) documentation of continuing competency, either by reference, peer review, examination, or one or more of the continuing competency activities listed in section 38-145 and established by the board in rules and regulations, and (3) met any specific requirements for renewal under the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act, the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act, or the Nurse Practitioner Practice Act, as applicable.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 43;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,138; Laws 2007, LB185, § 39;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 148.    


Cross References

38-210. Expiration of license; conditions.

An advanced practice registered nurse's license expires if he or she does not renew his or her license to practice as a registered nurse or is not authorized to practice as a registered nurse in this state under the Nurse Licensure Compact.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 45;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,140; Laws 2007, LB185, § 41;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 149.    


Cross References

38-211. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for initial licensure and renewal under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 150.    


38-212. Use of title.

A person licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse in this state may use the title advanced practice registered nurse and the abbreviation APRN.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 151.    


38-213. Perinatal mental health disorders; referral network; questionnaire.

The board may work with accredited hospitals, advanced practice registered nurses, and licensed health care professionals and may create a referral network in Nebraska to develop policies, procedures, information, and educational materials to meet each of the following requirements concerning perinatal mental health disorders:

(1) An advanced practice registered nurse providing prenatal care may:

(a) Provide education to a pregnant patient and, if possible and with permission, to the patient's family about perinatal mental health disorders in accordance with the formal opinions and recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists; and

(b) Invite each pregnant patient to complete a questionnaire in accordance with the formal opinions and recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Screening for perinatal mental health disorders may be repeated when, in the professional judgment of the advanced practice registered nurse, the patient is at increased risk for developing a perinatal mental health disorder;

(2) An advanced practice registered nurse providing postnatal care may invite each postpartum patient to complete a questionnaire and, if completed, shall review the questionnaire in accordance with the formal opinions and recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists; and

(3) An advanced practice registered nurse providing pediatric care to an infant may invite the infant's mother to complete a questionnaire at any well-child checkup occurring during the first year of life at which the mother is present and, if completed, shall review the questionnaire in accordance with the formal opinions and recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics, in order to ensure that the health and well-being of the infant are not compromised by an undiagnosed perinatal mental health disorder in the mother.

Source:Laws 2022, LB905, § 7.    


38-301. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-301 to 38-321 shall be known and may be cited as the Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 152.    


38-302. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-303 to 38-309 apply.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 115;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,351; Laws 2007, LB463, § 153.    


38-303. Alcohol and drug counseling, defined.

Alcohol and drug counseling means providing or performing the core functions of an alcohol and drug counselor for remuneration.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 154.    


38-304. Alcohol and drug counselor, defined.

Alcohol and drug counselor means a person engaged in alcohol and drug counseling.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 155.    


38-305. Alcohol or drug abuse, defined.

Alcohol or drug abuse means the abuse of alcohol or other drugs which have significant mood or perception changing capacities, which are likely to be physiologically or psychologically addictive, and the use of which have negative physical, social, or psychological consequences.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 156.    


38-306. Alcohol or drug dependence, defined.

Alcohol or drug dependence means cognitive, behavioral, and psychological symptoms indicating the continued use of alcohol or other drugs despite significant alcohol or drug-related problems.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 157.    


38-307. Alcohol or drug disorder, defined.

Alcohol or drug disorder means a substance-related disorder as defined by the department in rules and regulations substantially similar with the definitions of the American Psychiatric Association in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 158.    


38-308. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Alcohol and Drug Counseling.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 159.    


38-309. Core functions, defined.

Core functions means the following twelve activities an alcohol and drug counselor performs in the role of counselor: Screening, intake, orientation, assessment, treatment planning, counseling (individual, group, and significant others), case management, crisis intervention, client education, referral, reports and record keeping, and consultation with other professionals in regard to client treatment and services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 160.    


38-310. Membership on board; qualifications.

Membership on the board shall consist of seven professional members and two public members appointed pursuant to section 38-158. The members shall meet the requirements of sections 38-164 and 38-165. Three of the professional members shall be licensed alcohol and drug counselors who may also be licensed as psychologists or mental health practitioners, three of the professional members shall be licensed alcohol and drug counselors who are not licensed as psychologists or mental health practitioners, and one of the professional members shall be a psychiatrist, psychologist, or mental health practitioner.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 161.    


38-311. Scope of practice.

(1) The scope of practice for alcohol and drug counseling is the application of general counseling theories and treatment methods adapted to specific addiction theory and research for the express purpose of treating any alcohol or drug abuse, dependence, or disorder. The practice of alcohol and drug counseling consists of the following performance areas which encompass the twelve core functions: Clinical evaluation; treatment planning; counseling; education; documentation; and professional and ethical standards.

(2) The performance area of clinical evaluation consists of screening and assessment of alcohol and drug problems, screening of other presenting problems for which referral may be necessary, and diagnosis of alcohol and drug disorders. Clinical evaluation does not include mental health assessment or treatment. An alcohol and drug counselor shall refer a person with co-occurring mental disorders unless such person is under the care of, or previously assessed or diagnosed by, an appropriate practitioner within a reasonable amount of time.

(3) The performance area of treatment planning consists of case management, including implementing the treatment plan, consulting, and continuing assessment and treatment planning; referral; and client advocacy.

(4) The performance area of counseling consists of individual counseling, group counseling, and family or significant other counseling.

(5) The performance area of education consists of education for clients, family of clients, and the community.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 116;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,352; Laws 2007, LB463, § 162.    


38-312. License required; exceptions.

No person shall engage in alcohol and drug counseling or hold himself or herself out as an alcohol and drug counselor unless he or she is licensed for such purpose pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act, except that this section shall not be construed to prevent:

(1) Qualified members of other professions who are credentialed by this state from practice of any alcohol and drug counseling consistent with the scope of practice of their respective professions;

(2) Teaching or the conduct of research related to alcohol and drug counseling with organizations or institutions if such teaching, research, or consultation does not involve the delivery or supervision of alcohol and drug counseling to individuals or groups of individuals who are themselves, rather than a third party, the intended beneficiaries of such services;

(3) The delivery of alcohol and drug counseling by:

(a) Students, interns, or residents whose activities constitute a part of the course of study for medicine, psychology, nursing, school psychology, social work, clinical social work, counseling, marriage and family therapy, alcohol and drug counseling, compulsive gambling counseling, or other health care or mental health service professions; or

(b) Individuals seeking to fulfill postgraduate requirements for licensure when those individuals are supervised by a licensed professional consistent with the applicable regulations of the appropriate professional board;

(4) Duly recognized members of the clergy from providing alcohol and drug counseling in the course of their ministerial duties and consistent with the codes of ethics of their profession if they do not represent themselves to be alcohol and drug counselors;

(5) The incidental exchange of advice or support by persons who do not represent themselves as engaging in alcohol and drug counseling, including participation in self-help groups when the leaders of such groups receive no compensation for their participation and do not represent themselves as alcohol and drug counselors or their services as alcohol and drug counseling;

(6) Any person providing emergency crisis intervention or referral services; or

(7) Staff employed in a program designated by an agency of state government to provide rehabilitation and support services to individuals with alcohol or drug disorders from completing a rehabilitation assessment or preparing, implementing, and evaluating an individual rehabilitation plan.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 117;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,353; Laws 2007, LB463, § 163.    


38-313. License; application; provisional license.

(1) A person may apply for a license as an alcohol and drug counselor if he or she meets the requirements provided in section 38-316.

(2) A person may apply for a license as a provisional alcohol and drug counselor which permits such person to practice and acquire the supervised clinical work experience required for licensure as an alcohol and drug counselor. Provisional status may be granted once and held for a time period not to exceed six years, except that if an individual does not complete the supervised clinical work experience required for licensure within the specified six-year period due to unforeseen circumstances as determined by the department, with the recommendation of the board, the individual may apply for one additional provisional license. An individual who is so licensed shall not render services without clinical supervision. An individual who holds provisional licensure shall inform all clients that he or she holds a provisional certification and is practicing under supervision and shall identify the supervisor. An applicant shall meet the requirements provided in section 38-314.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 118;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,354; Laws 2007, LB463, § 164.    


Cross References

38-314. Provisional alcohol and drug counselor; license requirements.

To be licensed to practice as a provisional alcohol and drug counselor, an applicant shall:

(1) Have a high school diploma or its equivalent;

(2) Have two hundred seventy hours of education related to the knowledge and skills of alcohol and drug counseling which shall include:

(a) A minimum of forty-five hours in counseling theories and techniques coursework;

(b) A minimum of forty-five hours in group counseling coursework;

(c) A minimum of thirty hours in human growth and development coursework;

(d) A minimum of fifteen hours in professional ethics and issues coursework;

(e) A minimum of thirty hours in alcohol and drug assessment, case planning, and management coursework;

(f) A minimum of thirty hours in multicultural counseling coursework;

(g) A minimum of forty-five hours in medical and psychosocial aspects of alcohol and drug use, abuse, and addiction coursework; and

(h) A minimum of thirty hours in clinical treatment issues in chemical dependency coursework; and

(3) Have supervised practical training which shall:

(a) Include performing a minimum of three hundred hours in the counselor core functions in a work setting where alcohol and drug counseling is provided;

(b) Be a formal, systematic process that focuses on skill development and integration of knowledge;

(c) Include training hours documented by performance date and core function performance areas; and

(d) Include the performance of all counselor core functions with no single function performed less than ten hours.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 119;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,355; Laws 2007, LB463, § 165.    


Cross References

38-315. Practical training supervisor; requirements; duties.

(1)(a) The practical training supervisor for supervised practical training required under section 38-314 shall hold one of the following credentials:

(i) Licensure as an alcohol and drug counselor;

(ii) If the practical training is acquired outside of Nebraska, a reciprocity level alcohol and drug counselor credential issued by a member jurisdiction of the International Certification and Reciprocity Consortium, Alcohol and Other Drug Abuse, Inc., or its successor; or

(iii) Licensure as a physician or psychologist under the Uniform Credentialing Act, or an equivalent credential from another jurisdiction, and sufficient training as determined by the Board of Medicine and Surgery for physicians or the Board of Psychologists for psychologists, in consultation with the Board of Alcohol and Drug Counseling, and adopted and promulgated by the department in rules and regulations.

(b) The practical training supervisor shall not be a family member.

(c) The credential requirement of this subsection applies to the work setting supervisor and not to a practicum coordinator or instructor of a postsecondary educational institution.

(2) The practical training supervisor shall assume responsibility for the performance of the individual in training and shall be onsite at the work setting when core function activities are performed by the individual in training. A minimum of one hour of evaluative face-to-face supervision for each ten hours of core function performance shall be documented. Supervisory methods shall include, as a minimum, individual supervisory sessions, formal case staffings, and conjoint, cotherapy sessions. Supervision shall be directed towards teaching the knowledge and skills of professional alcohol and drug counseling.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 120;    Laws 2005, LB 551, § 1;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,356; Laws 2007, LB463, § 166.    


38-316. Alcohol and drug counselor; license requirements.

(1) To be licensed to practice as an alcohol and drug counselor, an applicant shall meet the requirements for licensure as a provisional alcohol and drug counselor under section 38-314, shall receive a passing score on an examination approved by the board, and shall have six thousand hours of supervised clinical work experience providing alcohol and drug counseling services to alcohol and other drug clients for remuneration. The experience shall be polydrug counseling experience.

(2) The experience shall include carrying a client caseload as the primary alcohol and drug counselor performing the core functions of assessment, treatment planning, counseling, case management, referral, reports and record keeping, and consultation with other professionals for those clients. The experience shall also include responsibility for performance of the five remaining core functions although these core functions need not be performed by the applicant with each client in their caseload.

(3) Experience that shall not count towards licensure shall include, but not be limited to:

(a) Providing services to individuals who do not have a diagnosis of alcohol and drug abuse or dependence such as prevention, intervention, and codependency services or other mental health disorder counseling services, except that this shall not exclude counseling services provided to a client's significant others when provided in the context of treatment for the diagnosed alcohol or drug client; and

(b) Providing services when the experience does not include primary case responsibility for alcohol or drug treatment or does not include responsibility for the performance of all of the core functions.

(4) The maximum number of hours of experience that may be accrued are forty hours per week or two thousand hours per year.

(5)(a) A postsecondary educational degree may be substituted for part of the supervised clinical work experience. The degree shall be from an accredited postsecondary educational institution or the educational program.

(b) An associate's degree in addictions or chemical dependency may be substituted for one thousand hours of supervised clinical work experience.

(c) A bachelor's degree with a major in counseling, addictions, social work, sociology, or psychology may be substituted for two thousand hours of supervised clinical work experience.

(d) A master's degree or higher in counseling, addictions, social work, sociology, or psychology may be substituted for four thousand hours of supervised clinical work experience.

(e) A substitution shall not be made for more than one degree.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 121;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,357; Laws 2007, LB463, § 167;    Laws 2021, LB528, § 6.    


Cross References

38-317. Clinical supervisor; requirements; duties.

(1)(a) The clinical supervisor for supervised clinical work experience under section 38-316 shall hold one of the following credentials:

(i) Licensure as an alcohol and drug counselor;

(ii) If the clinical work is acquired outside of Nebraska, a reciprocity level alcohol and drug counselor credential issued by a member jurisdiction of the International Certification and Reciprocity Consortium, Alcohol and Other Drug Abuse, Inc., or its successor;

(iii) The highest level alcohol and drug counselor credential issued by a jurisdiction that is not a member of the International Certification and Reciprocity Consortium, Alcohol and Other Drug Abuse, Inc., or its successor if the credential is based on education, experience, and examination that is substantially similar to the license issued in this state as determined by the board; or

(iv) Licensure as a physician or psychologist under the Uniform Credentialing Act, or an equivalent credential from another jurisdiction, and sufficient training as determined by the Board of Medicine and Surgery for physicians or the Board of Psychologists for psychologists, in consultation with the Board of Alcohol and Drug Counseling, and adopted and promulgated by the department in rules and regulations.

(b) The clinical supervisor shall be formally affiliated with the program or agency in which the work experience is gained.

(c) The clinical supervisor shall not be a family member.

(2) There shall be one hour of evaluative face-to-face clinical supervision for each forty hours of paid alcohol and drug counseling work experience. The format for supervision shall be either one-on-one or small group. Methods of supervision may include case review and discussion or direct observation of a counselor's clinical work.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 122;    Laws 2005, LB 551, § 2;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,358; Laws 2007, LB463, § 168.    


38-318. Licensure; substitute requirements.

(1) An individual who is licensed as a provisional alcohol and drug counselor at the time of application for licensure as an alcohol and drug counselor is deemed to have met the requirements of a high school diploma or its equivalent, the two hundred seventy hours of education related to alcohol and drug counseling, and the supervised practical training requirement.

(2) An applicant who is licensed as a provisional mental health practitioner or a mental health practitioner or who holds a privilege to practice in Nebraska as a professional counselor under the Licensed Professional Counselors Interstate Compact at the time of application for licensure is deemed to have met the requirements of subdivisions (2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (f) of section 38-314.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 123;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,359; Laws 2007, LB463, § 169;    Laws 2022, LB752, § 9.    


Cross References

38-319. Reciprocity; military spouse; temporary license.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may issue a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction to an individual who (1) meets the requirements of the Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act, (2) meets substantially equivalent requirements as determined by the department, with the recommendation of the board, or (3) holds a license or certification that is current in another jurisdiction that authorizes the applicant to provide alcohol and drug counseling, has at least two hundred seventy hours of alcohol and drug counseling education, has at least three years of full-time alcohol and drug counseling practice following initial licensure or certification in the other jurisdiction, and has passed an alcohol and drug counseling examination. An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 170;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 36;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 6.    


38-320. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for initial licensure and renewal under the Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 171.    


38-321. Rules and regulations.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to administer the Alcohol and Drug Counseling Practice Act, including rules and regulations governing:

(1) Ways of clearly identifying students, interns, and other persons providing alcohol and drug counseling under supervision;

(2) The rights of persons receiving alcohol and drug counseling;

(3) The rights of clients to gain access to their records, except that records relating to substance abuse may be withheld from a client if an alcohol and drug counselor determines, in his or her professional opinion, that release of the records to the client would not be in the best interest of the client or would pose a threat to another person, unless the release of the records is required by court order;

(4) The contents and methods of distribution of disclosure statements to clients of alcohol and drug counselors; and

(5) Standards of professional conduct and a code of ethics.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 1083, § 125;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1,361; Laws 2007, LB463, § 172;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 7.    


38-401. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-401 to 38-414 shall be known and may be cited as the Athletic Training Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 173;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 1.    


38-402. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Athletic Training Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-404 to 38-407.02 apply.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 355, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 477;    Laws 1999, LB 178, § 2;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 140;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 65;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,238; Laws 2007, LB296, § 359;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 174;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 2.    


38-403. Repealed. Laws 2022, LB436, § 12.

38-404. Athletic trainer, defined.

Athletic trainer means a health care professional who is licensed to practice athletic training under the Athletic Training Practice Act and who, under guidelines established with a licensed physician, performs the functions outlined in section 38-408 except as otherwise provided in subsection (5) of section 38-408.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 176;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 3.    


38-405. Repealed. Laws 2022, LB436, § 12.

38-406. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Athletic Training.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 178.    


38-406.01. Condition, defined.

Condition means a disease, illness, or injury.

Source:Laws 2022, LB436, § 4.    


38-407. Repealed. Laws 2022, LB436, § 12.

38-407.01. Impression, defined.

Impression means a summation of information or an opinion formed, which is the outcome of the examination and assessment process.

Source:Laws 2022, LB436, § 5.    


38-407.02. Injuries and illnesses, defined.

Injuries and illnesses means injuries or common illnesses and conditions which are related to, or which limit participation in, exercise, athletic activities, recreational activities, or activities requiring physical strength, agility, flexibility, range of motion, speed, or stamina, and for which athletic trainers as a result of their education and training are qualified to provide care and make referrals to the appropriate health care professionals.

Source:Laws 2022, LB436, § 6.    


38-408. Athletic training; scope of practice; department; duties.

(1) As set forth in the Athletic Training Practice Act, the practice of athletic training includes providing the following regarding injuries and illnesses:

(a) Prevention and wellness promotion;

(b) Examination, assessment, and impression;

(c) Immediate and emergency care, including the administration of emergency drugs as prescribed by a licensed physician and dispensed by a pharmacy for emergency use, subject to subsection (2) of this section;

(d) Therapeutic intervention or rehabilitation of injuries and illnesses in the manner, means, and methods deemed necessary to affect care, rehabilitation, or function;

(e) Therapeutic modalities. For purposes of this subdivision, and except as provided in subsection (9) of this section, therapeutic modalities includes, but is not limited to:

(i) Physical modalities; and

(ii) Mechanical modalities, including, but not limited to, dry needling; and

(f) Health care administration, risk management, and professional responsibility.

(2) The department shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations regarding the administration of emergency drugs as authorized in this section, including drugs, medicines, and medicinal substances as defined in section 38-2819 except for controlled substances listed in section 28-405.

(3) The department shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations regarding the use of dry needling by athletic trainers.

(4) The scope of practice of athletic trainers does not include the use of joint manipulation, grade V mobilization/manipulation, thrust joint manipulation, high velocity/low amplitude thrust, nor any other procedure intended to result in joint cavitation. Joint manipulation commences where grades one through four mobilization ends.

(5) When athletic training is provided in a hospital outpatient department or clinic, or an outpatient-based medical facility or clinic, the athletic trainer shall perform the functions described in this section with a referral from a licensed physician, osteopathic physician, podiatrist, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, dentist, or chiropractor. The referral shall state the diagnosis and, if deemed necessary, identify any instructions or protocols by the referring provider. In these instances, for each patient under his or her care, the athletic trainer shall ensure documentation is complete, accurate, and timely and shall include the following:

(a) Provide and document the initial examination, assessment, and impression;

(b) Provide periodic reexamination with documentation of the reexamination, assessment, and impression;

(c) Establish a plan of care following either the initial examination or reexamination that is in accordance with the diagnosis and any instructions or protocols indicated by the referring provider;

(d) Communicate to the referring provider changes in the patient's condition that may require altering instructions and protocols indicated by the referral from the referring provider;

(e) Be responsible for accurate documentation of each followup visit and billing for athletic training services provided; and

(f) Provide documentation upon discharge, including patient response to athletic training intervention at the time of discharge.

(6) In all other instances, the athletic trainer shall maintain documentation consistent with the guidelines established with a licensed physician and specific to the setting in which the athletic trainer is practicing.

(7) An individual who is licensed as an athletic trainer may not provide, offer to provide, or represent that he or she is qualified to provide any care or services that he or she lacks the education, training, or experience to provide or that he or she is otherwise prohibited by law from providing.

(8) Pursuant to subdivision (18) of section 38-2025, no athletic trainer shall hold himself or herself out to be a physician or surgeon or qualified to prescribe medications.

(9) The application of heat, cold, air, water, or exercise shall not be restricted by the Athletic Training Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 180;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 7.    


38-409. License required; exceptions.

No person shall be authorized to perform the functions outlined in section 38-408 unless the person first obtains a license as an athletic trainer or unless such person is licensed as a physician, osteopathic physician, chiropractor, nurse, physical therapist, or podiatrist. No person shall hold himself or herself out as an athletic trainer in this state unless such person is licensed under the Athletic Training Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 355, § 3;    Laws 1989, LB 342, § 27;    Laws 1999, LB 178, § 3;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 67;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,240; Laws 2007, LB463, § 181;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 8.    


38-410. Licensure requirements; exemptions.

(1) An individual who accompanies an athletic team or organization from another state or jurisdiction as the athletic trainer is exempt from the licensure requirements of the Athletic Training Practice Act.

(2) An athletic training student who is enrolled in an athletic training education program accredited by an accrediting body approved by the board is exempt from the licensure requirements of the Athletic Training Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 178, § 4;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 66;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,239.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 182;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 9.    


38-411. Applicant for licensure; qualifications; examination.

(1) An applicant for licensure as an athletic trainer shall at the time of application provide proof to the department that the applicant meets one or more of the following qualifications:

(a) For any person who graduated prior to January 1, 2004:

(i) Graduation after successful completion of the curriculum requirements of an accredited athletic training education program at an accredited college or university approved by the board; or

(ii) Graduation with a four-year degree from an accredited college or university and completion of at least two consecutive years, military duty excepted, as an athletic training student under the supervision of an athletic trainer approved by the board; and

(b) For any person who graduated after January 1, 2004, graduation after successful completion of the curriculum requirements of an accredited athletic training education program at an accredited college or university approved by the board.

(2) In order to be licensed as an athletic trainer, an applicant shall, in addition to the requirements of subsection (1) of this section, successfully complete an examination approved by the board.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 355, § 4;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,241; Laws 2007, LB463, § 183;    Laws 2022, LB436, § 10.    


Cross References

38-412. Continuing competency requirements.

An applicant for licensure as an athletic trainer who has met the education and examination requirements in section 38-411, who passed the examination more than three years prior to the time of application for licensure, and who is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 184.    


38-413. Reciprocity; continuing competency requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) An applicant for licensure as an athletic trainer who has met the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 for a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction but is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 185;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 37.    


38-414. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for initial licensure and renewal under the Athletic Training Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 186.    


38-501. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-501 to 38-527 shall be known and may be cited as the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 63;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 187.    


38-502. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-503 to 38-509 apply.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 13;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 14;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 66;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 130;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,186; Laws 2007, LB247, § 27;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 64;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 188.    


38-503. Audiologist, defined.

Audiologist means an individual who practices audiology and who presents himself or herself to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words audiologist, hearing clinician, or hearing therapist or any similar title or description of services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 189.    


38-504. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 190.    


38-505. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant, defined.

Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant or any individual who presents himself or herself to the public by any title or description with the same duties means any person who, following specified training and receiving specified supervision, provides specified limited structured communication or swallowing services, which are developed and supervised by a licensed audiologist or licensed speech-language pathologist, in the areas in which the supervisor holds licenses.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 65;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 191.    


38-506. Dysphagia, defined.

Dysphagia means disorders of swallowing.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 66.    


38-507 . Practice of audiology, defined.

Practice of audiology means the application of evidence-based practice in clinical decisionmaking for the prevention, assessment, habilitation, rehabilitation, and maintenance of persons with hearing, auditory function, and vestibular function impairments and related impairments, including (1) cerumen removal from the cartilaginous outer one-third portion of the external auditory canal when the presence of cerumen may affect the accuracy of hearing evaluations or impressions of the ear canal for amplification devices and (2) evaluation, selection, fitting, and dispensing of hearing instruments, external processors of implantable hearing instruments, and assistive technology devices as part of a comprehensive audiological rehabilitation program. Practice of audiology does not include the practice of medical diagnosis, medical treatment, or surgery.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 67;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 192;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 8.    


38-508. Practice of speech-language pathology, defined.

Practice of speech-language pathology means the application of principles and methods associated with the development and disorders of human communication skills and with dysphagia, which principles and methods include screening, assessment, evaluation, treatment, prevention, consultation, and restorative modalities for speech, voice, language, language-based learning, hearing, swallowing, or other upper aerodigestive functions for the purpose of improving quality of life by reducing impairments of body functions and structures, activity limitations, participation restrictions, and environmental barriers. Practice of speech-language pathology does not include the practice of medical diagnosis, medical treatment, or surgery.

Source:Laws 2007, LB247, § 68;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 193.    


38-509. Speech-language pathologist, defined.

Speech-language pathologist means an individual who presents himself or herself to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words speech-language pathologist, speech therapist, speech correctionist, speech clinician, language pathologist, language therapist, language clinician, logopedist, communicologist, aphasiologist, aphasia therapist, voice pathologist, voice therapist, voice clinician, phoniatrist, or any similar title, term, or description of services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 194.    


38-510. Membership on board; qualifications.

Membership on the board shall consist of four professional members and one public member appointed pursuant to section 38-158. The members shall meet the requirements of sections 38-164 and 38-165. Two of the professional members shall be audiologists, and two of the professional members shall be speech-language pathologists.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 195.    


38-511. Practice of audiology or speech-language pathology; act, how construed.

Nothing in the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act shall be construed to prevent or restrict:

(1) The practice of audiology or speech-language pathology or the use of the official title of such practice by a person employed as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist by the federal government;

(2) A physician from engaging in the practice of medicine and surgery or any individual from carrying out any properly delegated responsibilities within the normal practice of medicine and surgery under the supervision of a physician;

(3) A person licensed as a hearing instrument specialist in this state from engaging in the fitting, selling, and servicing of hearing instruments or performing such other duties as defined in the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act;

(4) The practice of audiology or speech-language pathology or the use of the official title of such practice by a person who holds a valid and current credential as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist issued by the State Department of Education, if such person performs speech-language pathology or audiology services solely as a part of his or her duties within an agency, institution, or organization for which no fee is paid directly or indirectly by the recipient of such service and under the jurisdiction of the State Department of Education, but such person may elect to be within the jurisdiction of the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act;

(5) The clinical practice in audiology or speech-language pathology required for students enrolled in an accredited college or university pursuing a major in audiology or speech-language pathology, if such clinical practices are supervised by a person licensed to practice audiology or speech-language pathology and if the student is designated by a title such as student clinician or other title clearly indicating the training status; or

(6) The utilization of a speech aide or other personnel employed by a public school, educational service unit, or other private or public educational institution working under the direct supervision of a credentialed speech-language pathologist.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 14;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 15;    Laws 1990, LB 828, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,187; Laws 2007, LB247, § 28;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 196;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 9.    


Cross References

38-512. Sale of hearing instruments; audiologist; applicability of act.

Any audiologist who engages in the sale of hearing instruments shall not be exempt from the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 23;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,196; Laws 2007, LB463, § 197;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 10.    


Cross References

38-513. Licensed professional; nonresident; practice of audiology or speech-language pathology; act, how construed.

Nothing in the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act shall be construed to prevent or restrict (1) a qualified person licensed in this state from engaging in the profession for which he or she is licensed if he or she does not present himself or herself to be an audiologist or speech-language pathologist or (2) the performance of audiology or speech-language pathology services in this state by any person not a resident of this state who is not licensed either under the act or in a member state of the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact, if (a) such services are performed for not more than thirty days in any calendar year, (b) such person meets the qualifications and requirements for application for licensure under the act, (c) such person is working under the supervision of a person licensed in Nebraska to practice speech-language pathology or audiology or under the supervision of a person licensed in a member state practicing speech-language pathology or audiology in Nebraska under the compact privilege, and (d) such person registers with the board prior to initiation of professional services.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 15;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 16;    Laws 1990, LB 828, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,188; Laws 2007, LB463, § 198;    Laws 2021, LB14, § 1.    


Cross References

38-514. Audiologist; initiate aural rehabilitation; when.

Before any audiologist initiates any aural rehabilitation for an individual, the audiologist shall have in his or her possession evidence of a current otologic examination performed by a physician or the audiologist shall issue a written statement that the individual has been informed that he or she may have a medically or surgically remediable hearing loss and should seek the advice of a physician. The audiologist and the individual receiving aural rehabilitation shall sign the statement and a copy of the statement shall be provided to the individual. All vestibular testing performed by an audiologist shall be done at the referral of a physician and, whenever possible, at the referral of an otolaryngologist or neurologist.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 16;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 17;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,189; Laws 2007, LB463, § 199.    


38-515. Practice of audiology or speech-language pathology; license or privilege to practice; applicant; requirements.

(1) Every applicant for a license to practice audiology shall (a)(i) for applicants graduating prior to September 1, 2007, present proof of a master's degree, a doctoral degree, or the equivalent of a master's degree or doctoral degree in audiology from an academic program approved by the board, and (ii) for applicants graduating on or after September 1, 2007, present proof of a doctoral degree or its equivalent in audiology, (b) present proof of no less than thirty-six weeks of full-time professional experience or equivalent half-time professional experience in audiology, supervised in the area in which licensure is sought, and (c) successfully complete an examination approved by the board.

(2) Every applicant for a license to practice speech-language pathology shall (a) present proof of a master's degree, a doctoral degree, or the equivalent of a master's degree or doctoral degree in speech-language pathology from an academic program approved by the board, (b) present proof of no less than thirty-six weeks of full-time professional experience or equivalent half-time professional experience in speech-language pathology, supervised in the area in which licensure is sought, and (c) successfully complete an examination approved by the board.

(3) Presentation of official documentation of certification by a nationwide professional accrediting organization approved by the board shall be deemed equivalent to the requirements of this section.

(4) Every applicant for a privilege to practice audiology or speech-language pathology under the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact shall present proof of authorization from a member state, as defined in section 38-4101, to practice as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 17;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 18;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 67;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,190; Laws 2007, LB463, § 200;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 1178;    Laws 2021, LB14, § 2.    


Cross References

38-516. Continuing competency requirements.

An applicant for licensure to practice audiology or speech-language pathology who has met the education, professional experience, and examination requirements in section 38-515, who passed the examination more than three years prior to the time of application for licensure, and who is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 201.    


38-517. Reciprocity; continuing competency requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) An applicant for licensure to practice audiology or speech-language pathology who has met the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 for a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction but is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 202;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 38.    


38-518. Practice of audiology or speech-language pathology; temporary license; granted; when.

A temporary license to practice audiology or speech-language pathology may be granted to:

(1) A military spouse as provided in section 38-129.01; or

(2) A person who establishes residence in Nebraska, or a person who is a resident of a member state of the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact, if such person:

(a) Meets all the requirements for a license except passage of the examination required by section 38-515, which temporary license shall be valid only until the date on which the results of the next licensure examination are available to the department and shall not be renewed; or

(b) Meets all the requirements for a license except completion of the professional experience required by section 38-515, which temporary license shall be valid only until the sooner of completion of such professional experience or eighteen months and shall not be renewed.

Source:Laws 1978, LB 406, § 21;    Laws 1985, LB 129, § 22;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 68;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 28; Laws 2001, LB 209, § 12;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 59;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,194; Laws 2007, LB463, § 203;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 39;    Laws 2021, LB14, § 3.    


Cross References

38-519. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; registration; requirements.

(1) Upon application and payment of the registration fee, the department shall register to practice as an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant any person who:

(a)(i) Holds a bachelor's degree or its equivalent in communication disorders, (ii) holds an associate degree or its equivalent in communication disorders from an accredited training program, or (iii) between the period of June 1, 2005, and June 1, 2007, was registered as and practiced as a communication assistant for at least thirty hours per week for a minimum of nine months per year;

(b) Has successfully completed all required training pursuant to sections 38-521 and 38-522 and any inservice training required pursuant to section 38-526; and

(c) Has demonstrated ability to reliably maintain records and provide treatment under the supervision of a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist.

(2) Such registration shall be valid for one year from the date of issuance.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 23;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 69;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 27;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 60;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.01; Laws 2007, LB247, § 29;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 204.    


Cross References

38-520. Audiologist or speech-language pathology assistant; supervision; termination.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall approve an application submitted by an audiologist or speech-language pathologist for supervision of an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant when:

(a) The audiology or speech-language pathology assistant meets the requirements for registration pursuant to section 38-519;

(b) The audiologist or speech-language pathologist has a valid Nebraska license or a privilege to practice audiology or speech-language pathology under the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact; and

(c) The audiologist or speech-language pathologist practices in Nebraska.

(2) Any audiologist or speech-language pathologist seeking approval for supervision of an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant shall submit an application which is signed by the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant and the audiologist or speech-language pathologist with whom he or she is associated. Such application shall (a) identify the settings within which the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant is authorized to practice, (b) describe the agreed-upon functions that the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant may perform as provided in section 38-523, and (c) describe the provision for supervision by an alternate audiologist or speech-language pathologist when necessary.

(3) If the supervision of an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant is terminated by the audiologist, speech-language pathologist, or audiology or speech-language pathology assistant, the audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall notify the department of such termination. An audiologist or speech-language pathologist who thereafter assumes the responsibility for such supervision shall obtain a certificate of approval to supervise an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant from the department prior to the use of the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant in the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 24;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 30;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 70;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.02; Laws 2007, LB247, § 30;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 205;    Laws 2021, LB14, § 4.    


Cross References

38-521. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; initial training.

Initial training for an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant shall consist of graduation from an accredited program with a focus on communication disorders which shall include:

(1) An overview of speech, language, and dysphagia and the practice of audiology and speech-language pathology;

(2) Ethical and legal responsibilities;

(3) Normal language, speech, and hearing functions and swallowing physiology;

(4) Observing and recording patient progress;

(5) Behavior management and modification; and

(6) Record keeping.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 26;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 72;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.04; Laws 2007, LB247, § 32;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 206.    


38-522. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; aural rehabilitation programs; training.

In addition to the initial training required by section 38-521, an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant assigned to provide aural rehabilitation programs shall have additional training which shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) Information concerning the nature of hearing loss;

(2) Purposes and principles of auditory and visual training;

(3) Maintenance and use of amplification devices; and

(4) Such other subjects as the department may deem appropriate.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 27;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 73;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.05; Laws 2007, LB247, § 33;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 207.    


38-523. Audiology or speech-language assistant; duties and activities.

An audiology or speech-language pathology assistant may, under the supervision of a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist, perform the following duties and activities:

(1) Implement programs and procedures designed by a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist;

(2) Maintain records of implemented procedures which document a patient's responses to treatment;

(3) Provide input for interdisciplinary treatment planning, inservice training, and other activities directed by a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist;

(4) Prepare instructional material to facilitate program implementation as directed by a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist;

(5) Follow plans, developed by the licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist, that provide specific sequences of treatment to individuals with communicative disorders or dysphagia; and

(6) Chart or log patient responses to the treatment plan.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 28;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 74;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.06; Laws 2007, LB247, § 34;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 208.    


38-524. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; acts prohibited.

An audiology or speech-language pathology assistant shall not:

(1) Evaluate or diagnose any type of communication disorder;

(2) Evaluate or diagnose any type of dysphagia;

(3) Interpret evaluation results or treatment progress;

(4) Consult or counsel, independent of the licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist, with a patient, a patient's family, or staff regarding the nature or degree of communication disorders or dysphagia;

(5) Plan patient treatment programs;

(6) Represent himself or herself as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist or as a provider of speech, language, swallowing, or hearing treatment or assessment services;

(7) Independently initiate, modify, or terminate any treatment program; or

(8) Fit or dispense hearing instruments.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 29;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 75;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.07; Laws 2007, LB247, § 35;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 209;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 11.    


38-525. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; supervisor; duties.

(1) When supervising an audiology or speech-language pathology assistant, the supervising audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall:

(a) Provide supervision for no more than two audiology or speech-language pathology assistants at one time;

(b) Provide direct onsite supervision for the first two treatment sessions of each patient's care;

(c) Provide direct onsite supervision of at least twenty percent of all subsequent treatment sessions per quarter;

(d) Provide at least ten hours of inservice training per registration period, either formal or informal, which is directly related to the particular services provided by the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; and

(e) Prepare semiannual performance evaluations of the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant to be reviewed with the audiology or speech-language pathology assistant on a one-to-one basis.

(2) The supervising audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall be responsible for all aspects of patient treatment.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 30;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 76;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.08; Laws 2007, LB247, § 36;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 210.    


38-526. Audiology or speech-language pathology assistant; evaluation, supervision, training; supervisor; report required.

The supervising audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall provide annual reports to the department verifying that evaluation, supervision, and training required by section 38-525 has been completed. The audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall keep accurate records of such evaluation, supervision, and training.

Source:Laws 1985, LB 129, § 31;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 77;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,195.09; Laws 2007, LB247, § 37;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 69;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 211.    


38-527. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for initial licensure and registration and renewal of licensure and registration under the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 212.    


38-601. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-601 to 38-618 shall be known and may be cited as the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 1;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 82;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1738; Laws 2007, LB463, § 213.    


38-602. Legislative findings.

The Legislature hereby finds and declares that the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act is necessary to safeguard public life, health, safety, and welfare, to assure the highest degree of professional conduct by practitioners of certified nurse midwifery, and to insure the availability of high quality midwifery services to persons desiring such services.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1739; Laws 2007, LB463, § 214.    


38-603. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-604 to 38-610 apply.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 3;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 160;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1740; Laws 2007, LB463, § 215.    


38-604. Approved certified nurse midwifery education program, defined.

Approved certified nurse midwifery education program means a certified nurse midwifery education program approved by the board. The board may require such program to be accredited by the American College of Nurse-Midwives.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 12;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 85;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1749; Laws 2007, LB185, § 21;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 216.    


38-605. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 6;    Laws 1993, LB 536, § 74;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 161;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 83;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1743; Laws 2007, LB463, § 217.    


38-606. Certified nurse midwife, defined.

Certified nurse midwife means a person certified by a board-approved certifying body and licensed under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice certified nurse midwifery in the State of Nebraska. Nothing in the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act is intended to restrict the practice of registered nurses.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1748; Laws 2007, LB185, § 20;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 218.    


Cross References

38-607. Collaboration, defined.

Collaboration means a process and relationship in which a certified nurse midwife works together with other health professionals to deliver health care within the scope of practice of certified nurse midwifery as provided in the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act. The collaborative relationship between the physician and the nurse midwife shall be subject to the control and regulation of the board.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 10;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 84;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1747; Laws 2007, LB463, § 219.    


38-608. Licensed practitioner, defined.

Licensed practitioner means any physician licensed to practice pursuant to the Medicine and Surgery Practice Act, whose practice includes obstetrics.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1746; Laws 2007, LB463, § 220.    


Cross References

38-609. Practice agreement, defined.

Practice agreement means the written agreement authored and signed by the certified nurse midwife and the licensed practitioner with whom he or she is associated which:

(1) Identifies the settings within which the certified nurse midwife is authorized to practice;

(2) Names the collaborating licensed practitioner or, if more than one licensed practitioner is a party to such practice agreement, names all of the collaborating licensed practitioners;

(3) Defines or describes the medical functions to be performed by the certified nurse midwife, which are not inconsistent with the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act, as agreed to by the nurse midwife and the collaborating licensed practitioner; and

(4) Contains such other information as required by the board.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 13;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 86;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1750; Laws 2007, LB463, § 221.    


38-610. Supervision, defined.

Supervision means the ready availability of a collaborating licensed practitioner for consultation and direction of the activities of the certified nurse midwife related to delegated medical functions as outlined in the practice agreement.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1751; Laws 2007, LB463, § 222.    


38-611. Certified nurse midwife; authorized activities.

A certified nurse midwife may, under the provisions of a practice agreement, (1) attend cases of normal childbirth, (2) provide prenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum care, (3) provide normal obstetrical and gynecological services for women, and (4) provide care for the newborn immediately following birth. The conditions under which a certified nurse midwife is required to refer cases to a collaborating licensed practitioner shall be specified in the practice agreement.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1752; Laws 2007, LB185, § 22;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 223.    


38-612. Unlicensed person; acts not prohibited.

The Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act shall not prohibit the performance of the functions of a certified nurse midwife by an unlicensed person if performed:

(1) In an emergency situation;

(2) By a legally qualified person from another state employed by the United States Government and performing official duties in this state; or

(3) By a person enrolled in an approved program for the preparation of certified nurse midwives as part of such approved program.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 28;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1765; Laws 2007, LB185, § 27;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 224.    


38-613. Permitted practice described in practice agreement; supervision; settings; subject to review by board; rules and regulations.

(1) The specific medical functions to be performed by a certified nurse midwife within the scope of permitted practice prescribed by section 38-611 shall be described in the practice agreement which shall be reviewed and approved by the board. A copy of the agreement shall be maintained on file with the board as a condition of lawful practice under the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act.

(2) A certified nurse midwife shall perform the functions detailed in the practice agreement only under the supervision of the licensed practitioner responsible for the medical care of the patients described in the practice agreement. If the collaborating licensed practitioner named in the practice agreement becomes temporarily unavailable, the certified nurse midwife may perform the authorized medical functions only under the supervision of another licensed practitioner designated as a temporary substitute for that purpose by the collaborating licensed practitioner.

(3) A certified nurse midwife may perform authorized medical functions only in the following settings:

(a) In a licensed or certified health care facility as an employee or as a person granted privileges by the facility;

(b) In the primary office of a licensed practitioner or in any setting authorized by the collaborating licensed practitioner, except that a certified nurse midwife shall not attend a home delivery; or

(c) Within an organized public health agency.

(4) The department shall, after consultations with the board, adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to carry out the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 16;    Laws 1993, LB 536, § 75;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 87;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1753; Laws 2007, LB463, § 225.    


38-614. Change in practice; new or amended agreement.

If a certified nurse midwife intends to alter his or her practice status by reason of a change in the setting, supervision by a different licensed practitioner, modification of the authorized medical functions, or for any other reason, he or she shall submit a new or amended practice agreement to the board for approval before any change may be permitted.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 17;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 88;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1754; Laws 2007, LB463, § 226.    


38-615. Licensure as nurse midwife; application; requirements; temporary licensure.

(1) An applicant for licensure under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice as a certified nurse midwife shall submit such evidence as the board requires showing that the applicant is currently licensed as a registered nurse by the state or has the authority based on the Nurse Licensure Compact to practice as a registered nurse in Nebraska, has successfully completed an approved certified nurse midwifery education program, and is certified as a nurse midwife by a board-approved certifying body.

(2) The department may, with the approval of the board, grant temporary licensure as a certified nurse midwife for up to one hundred twenty days upon application (a) to graduates of an approved nurse midwifery program pending results of the first certifying examination following graduation and (b) to nurse midwives currently licensed in another state pending completion of the application for a Nebraska license. A temporary license issued pursuant to this subsection may be extended for up to one year with the approval of the board.

(3) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

(4) If more than five years have elapsed since the completion of the nurse midwifery program or since the applicant has practiced as a nurse midwife, the applicant shall meet the requirements in subsection (1) of this section and provide evidence of continuing competency, as may be determined by the board, either by means of a reentry program, references, supervised practice, examination, or one or more of the continuing competency activities listed in section 38-145.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 18;    Laws 1993, LB 536, § 76;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 175;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 63;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 107;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 89;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1755; Laws 2007, LB185, § 23;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 227;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 40.    


Cross References

38-616. License; renewal.

To renew a license as a certified nurse midwife, the applicant shall have a current certification by a board-approved certifying body to practice nurse midwifery.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 20;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 57;    Laws 1993, LB 536, § 77;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 42;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 64;    Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 48;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 108;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 90;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1757; Laws 2007, LB185, § 25;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 228.    


38-617. Certified nurse midwife; right to use title or abbreviation.

Any person who holds a license to practice nurse midwifery in this state shall have the right to use the title certified nurse midwife and the abbreviation CNM. No other person shall use such title or abbreviation to indicate that he or she is licensed under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice certified nurse midwifery.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 19;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1756; Laws 2007, LB185, § 24;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 229.    


Cross References

38-618. Act, how interpreted.

Nothing in the Certified Nurse Midwifery Practice Act shall be interpreted to permit independent practice.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 761, § 26;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1763; Laws 2007, LB463, § 230.    


38-701. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-701 to 38-711 shall be known and may be cited as the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 73;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1728; Laws 2007, LB463, § 231.    


38-702. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-703 to 38-706 apply.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 232.    


38-703. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 233.    


38-704. Certified registered nurse anesthetist, defined.

Certified registered nurse anesthetist means a licensed registered nurse certified by a board-approved certifying body and licensed under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist in the State of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 234.    


Cross References

38-705. Licensed practitioner, defined.

Licensed practitioner means any physician or osteopathic physician licensed to prescribe, diagnose, and treat as prescribed in the Medicine and Surgery Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 235.    


Cross References

38-706. Practice of anesthesia, defined; activities not subject to act.

(1) Practice of anesthesia means (a) the performance of or the assistance in any act involving the determination, preparation, administration, or monitoring of any drug used to render an individual insensible to pain for procedures requiring the presence of persons educated in the administration of anesthetics or (b) the performance of any act commonly the responsibility of educated anesthesia personnel. Practice of anesthesia includes the use of those techniques which are deemed necessary for adequacy in performance of anesthesia administration.

(2) Nothing in the Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist Practice Act prohibits (a) routine administration of a drug by a duly licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or other duly authorized person for the alleviation of pain or (b) the practice of anesthesia by students enrolled in an accredited school of nurse anesthesia when the services performed are a part of the course of study and are under the supervision of a licensed practitioner or certified registered nurse anesthetist.

Source:Laws 1981, LB 379, § 26; Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 73; Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 47;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 74;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1729; Laws 2007, LB185, § 14;    Laws 2007, LB296, § 485;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 236.    


38-707. Certified registered nurse anesthetist; license; requirements.

(1) An applicant for a license under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist shall:

(a) Hold a license as a registered nurse in the State of Nebraska or have the authority based on the Nurse Licensure Compact to practice as a registered nurse in Nebraska;

(b) Submit evidence of successful completion of a course of study in anesthesia in a school of nurse anesthesia accredited or approved by or under the auspices of the department or the Council on Accreditation of Nurse Anesthesia and Educational Programs; and

(c) Submit evidence of current certification by the Council on Certification of Nurse Anesthetists.

(2) If more than five years have elapsed since the applicant completed the nurse anesthetist program or since the applicant has practiced as a nurse anesthetist, he or she shall meet the requirements of subsection (1) of this section and shall provide evidence of continuing competency as determined by the board, including, but not limited to, a reentry program, supervised practice, examination, or one or more of the continuing competency activities listed in section 38-145.

Source:Laws 1981, LB 379, § 27; Laws 1984, LB 724, § 29;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 74; Laws 1996, LB 414, § 44;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 174;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 155;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 61;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 105;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 78;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1730; Laws 2007, LB185, § 15;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 237.    


Cross References

38-708. Certified registered nurse anesthetist; temporary license; permit.

(1) The department may, with the approval of the board, grant a temporary license in the practice of anesthesia for up to one hundred twenty days upon application (a) to graduates of an accredited school of nurse anesthesia pending results of the first certifying examination following graduation and (b) to registered nurse anesthetists currently licensed in another state pending completion of the application for a Nebraska license. A temporary license issued pursuant to this subsection may be extended at the discretion of the board with the approval of the department.

(2) An applicant for a license to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 1981, LB 379, § 28; Laws 1984, LB 724, § 30;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 75; Laws 1996, LB 414, § 45;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 156;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 79;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1731; Laws 2007, LB185, § 16;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 238;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 41.    


38-709. Certified registered nurse anesthetist; license; renewal.

To renew a license to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, the applicant shall have current certification by the Council on Certification of Nurse Anesthetists.

Source:Laws 1981, LB 379, § 32; Laws 1993, LB 536, § 73;    Laws 1995, LB 563, § 42;    Laws 1996, LB 414, § 46;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 157;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 61;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 62;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 106;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 80;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-1735; Laws 2007, LB185, § 18;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 239.    


Cross References

38-710. Use of title and abbreviation.

A person licensed as a certified registered nurse anesthetist has the right to use the title certified registered nurse anesthetist and the abbreviation C.R.N.A.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 240.    


38-711. Certified registered nurse anesthetist; performance of duties.

(1) The determination and administration of total anesthesia care shall be performed by the certified registered nurse anesthetist or a nurse anesthetist temporarily licensed pursuant to section 38-708 in consultation and collaboration with and with the consent of the licensed practitioner.

(2) The following duties and functions shall be considered as specific expanded role functions of the certified registered nurse anesthetist:

(a) Preanesthesia evaluation including physiological studies to determine proper anesthetic management and obtaining informed consent;

(b) Selection and application of appropriate monitoring devices;

(c) Selection and administration of anesthetic techniques;

(d) Evaluation and direction of proper postanesthesia management and dismissal from postanesthesia care;

(e) Evaluation and recording of postanesthesia course of patients; and

(f) Use of fluoroscopy in conjunction with a licensed medical radiographer in connection with the performance of authorized duties and functions upon (i) the successful completion of appropriate education and training as approved jointly by the department and the board and promulgated by the department in rules and regulations pursuant to section 71-3508 and (ii) a determination regarding the scope and supervision of such use consistent with subsection (3) of this section.

(3) The determination of other duties that are normally considered medically delegated duties to the certified registered nurse anesthetist or to a nurse anesthetist temporarily licensed pursuant to section 38-708 shall be the joint responsibility of the governing board of the hospital, medical staff, and nurse anesthetist personnel of any duly licensed hospital or, if in an office or clinic, the joint responsibility of the duly licensed practitioner and nurse anesthetist. All such duties, except in cases of emergency, shall be in writing in the form prescribed by hospital or office policy.

Source:Laws 1981, LB 379, § 31; Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 76; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1734; Laws 2007, LB185, § 17;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 241;    Laws 2008, LB928, § 4.    


38-801. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-801 to 38-811 shall be known and may be cited as the Chiropractic Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 242.    


38-802. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Chiropractic Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-803 to 38-805 apply.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 243.    


38-803. Accredited college of chiropractic, defined.

An accredited college of chiropractic means (1) one which is approved by the board, (2) a legally chartered college of chiropractic requiring for admission a diploma from an accredited high school or its equivalent and, beginning with students entering a college of chiropractic on or after January 1, 1974, at least two years credit from an accredited college or university of this or some other state, which requirement shall be regularly published in each prospectus or catalog issued by such institution, (3) one which conducts a clinic for patients in which its students are required to regularly participate in the care and adjustment of patients, (4) one giving instruction in anatomy, orthopedics, physiology, embryology, chemistry, pathology, health ecology, bacteriology, symptomatology, histology, spinal analysis, diagnosis, roentgenology, neurology, and principles and practice of chiropractic, and (5) one requiring an actual attendance for four college years totaling not less than four thousand hours.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 79, p. 475; C.S.1929, § 71-1104; R.S.1943, § 71-180; Laws 1945, c. 163, § 1, p. 528; Laws 1973, LB 115, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 405;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 67;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-180; Laws 2007, LB463, § 244.    


38-804. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Chiropractic.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 245.    


38-805. Practice of chiropractic, defined.

(1) Practice of chiropractic means one or a combination of the following, without the use of drugs or surgery:

(a) The diagnosis and analysis of the living human body for the purpose of detecting ailments, disorders, and disease by the use of diagnostic X-ray, physical and clinical examination, and routine procedures including urine analysis; or

(b) The science and art of treating human ailments, disorders, and disease by locating and removing any interference with the transmission and expression of nerve energy in the human body by chiropractic adjustment, chiropractic physiotherapy, and the use of exercise, nutrition, dietary guidance, and colonic irrigation.

(2) The use of X-rays beyond the axial skeleton as described in subdivision (1)(a) of this section shall be solely for diagnostic purposes and shall not expand the practice of chiropractic to include the treatment of human ailments, disorders, and disease not permitted when the use of X-rays was limited to the axial skeleton.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 76, p. 474; C.S.1929, § 71-1101; R.S.1943, § 71-177; Laws 1983, LB 142, § 1;    Laws 1990, LB 348, § 1;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-177; Laws 2007, LB463, § 246.    


Annotations

38-806. Chiropractic practice; persons excepted.

The Chiropractic Practice Act shall not be construed to include the following classes of persons:

(1) Licensed physicians and surgeons and licensed osteopathic physicians who are exclusively engaged in the practice of their respective professions;

(2) Physicians who serve in the armed forces of the United States or the United States Public Health Service or who are employed by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or other federal agencies, if their practice is limited to that service or employment;

(3) Chiropractors licensed in another state when incidentally called into this state in consultation with a chiropractor licensed in this state; or

(4) Students enrolled in an accredited college of chiropractic when the services performed are a part of the course of study and are under the direct supervision of a licensed chiropractor.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 77, p. 474; C.S.1929, § 71-1102; R.S.1943, § 71-178; Laws 1989, LB 342, § 14;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-178; Laws 2007, LB463, § 247.    


38-807. Chiropractic; license; qualifications required.

Every applicant for a license to practice chiropractic shall present proof of graduation from an accredited college of chiropractic and (1) pass an examination given by the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners which consists of Parts I, II, III, IV, and physiotherapy or (2) pass an examination approved by the Board of Chiropractic.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 78, p. 475; C.S.1929, § 71-1103; R.S.1943, § 71-179; Laws 1965, c. 413, § 1, p. 1321; Laws 1975, LB 92, § 2;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 29;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 65;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-179; Laws 2007, LB463, § 248.    


Cross References

Annotations

38-808. Continuing competency requirements.

An applicant for licensure to practice chiropractic who has met the education and examination requirements in section 38-807, who passed the examination more than three years prior to the time of application for licensure, and who is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 249.    


38-809. Reciprocity; continuing competency requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) An applicant for licensure to practice chiropractic who has met the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 for a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction but is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the two years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 80, p. 475; C.S.1929, § 71-1105; R.S.1943, § 71-181; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 406;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-181; Laws 2007, LB296, § 324;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 250;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 42.    


38-810. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for initial licensure and renewal under the Chiropractic Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 251.    


38-811. Chiropractic practitioner; powers and duties.

Chiropractic practitioners shall observe and be subject to all state and municipal laws and regulations relative to the control of contagious and infectious diseases, and all matters pertaining to public health. They shall report to the proper health officers the same as other practitioners. Chiropractic practitioners may sign death certificates. When performing acupuncture, a chiropractor licensed under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall provide the same standard of care to patients as that provided by a person licensed under the Uniform Credentialing Act to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathy, or osteopathic medicine and surgery when such person performs acupuncture.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 81, p. 475; C.S.1929, § 71-1106; R.S.1943, § 71-182; Laws 1945, c. 164, § 1, p. 529; Laws 2001, LB 270, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-182; Laws 2007, LB463, § 252.    


38-901. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-901 to 38-910 shall be known and may be cited as the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 1;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,117; Laws 2007, LB463, § 253.    


38-902. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-903 to 38-905 apply.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 254.    


38-903. Approved certifying body, defined.

Approved certifying body means a national certification organization which (1) is approved by the board, (2) certifies qualified licensed registered nurses for advanced practice, (3) has eligibility requirements related to education and practice, and (4) offers an examination in an area of practice which meets psychometric guidelines and tests approved by the board.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 2;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,118; Laws 2007, LB185, § 28;    Laws 2007, LB296, § 493;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 255.    


38-904. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 256.    


38-905. Clinical nurse specialist, defined.

Clinical nurse specialist means a registered nurse certified as described in section 38-908 and licensed under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice as a clinical nurse specialist in the State of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 257.    


Cross References

38-906. Clinical nurse specialist practice, defined.

The practice of a clinical nurse specialist includes health promotion, health supervision, illness prevention, and disease management, including assessing patients, synthesizing and analyzing data, and applying advanced nursing practice. A clinical nurse specialist conducts and applies research, advocates, serves as an agent of change, engages in systems management, and assesses and intervenes in complex health care problems within the selected clinical specialty.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 4;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,120; Laws 2007, LB463, § 258.    


38-907. Exemptions from act.

The Clinical Nurse Specialist Practice Act does not prohibit the performance of the professional activities of a clinical nurse specialist by a person not holding a license issued under the act if performed:

(1) In an emergency situation;

(2) By a legally qualified person from another state employed by the United States and performing official duties in this state; or

(3) By a person enrolled in an approved clinical nurse specialist program for the education of clinical nurse specialists as part of that approved program.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 12;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,128; Laws 2007, LB185, § 34;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 259.    


38-908. Licensure; eligibility; application.

An applicant for licensure under the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Practice Act to practice as a clinical nurse specialist shall be licensed as a registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act or have the authority based on the Nurse Licensure Compact to practice as a registered nurse in Nebraska and shall submit to the department the following:

(1) Evidence that the applicant holds a graduate degree in a nursing clinical specialty area or has a graduate degree in nursing and has successfully completed a graduate-level clinical nurse specialist education program; and

(2) Evidence of certification issued by an approved certifying body or, when such certification is not available, an alternative method of competency assessment by any means approved by the board.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 3;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,119; Laws 2007, LB185, § 29;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 260.    


Cross References

38-909. License; renewal; qualifications.

To renew a license as a clinical nurse specialist, the applicant shall have current certification by an approved certifying body as a clinical nurse specialist or, when such certification is not available, an alternative method of competency assessment by any means approved by the board.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 261.    


38-910. Use of title and abbreviation.

A person licensed as a clinical nurse specialist has the right to use the title Clinical Nurse Specialist and the abbreviation CNS.

Source:Laws 2005, LB 256, § 5;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-17,121; Laws 2007, LB185, § 30;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 262.    


38-1001. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1001 to 38-10,172 shall be known and may be cited as the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 1;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 1;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 13;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 1;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 3;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-340; Laws 2007, LB463, § 263;    Laws 2016, LB898, § 1;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 3;    Laws 2019, LB449, § 3.    


38-1002. Legislative findings.

The Legislature finds that: (1) A great number of Nebraska citizens regularly demand and receive cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, electrology, and body art services; (2) the practices of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, electrology, and body art involve the use of implements and chemicals that, if used or applied improperly, can be hazardous to human health and safety; (3) inadequate sanitation in the practice of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, electrology, or body art can encourage the spread of contagious diseases, infections, and infestations to the detriment of the health and safety of the public; (4) the knowledge of proper sanitation techniques and the proper use of implements and chemicals can best be gained by rigorous and extensive training in cosmetology, nail technology, and esthetics at institutions operated exclusively for such purposes; (5) the need of the public to be served by well-trained persons and the need of cosmetology, nail technology, and esthetics students to receive an appropriate education can best be met through the enactment of standards for the approval of schools of cosmetology, nail technology schools, and schools of esthetics; (6) the effectiveness of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or electrology training and the competency to practice can best be demonstrated by the passage of an impartially administered examination before a person is permitted to practice; (7) continuing competency can best be demonstrated by participation in continuing competency activities; (8) the establishment and maintenance of a safe environment in places where cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, electrology, or body art is practiced can best be ensured through the establishment of operating and sanitary requirements for the safe and sanitary operation of such places; (9) the protection of the health and safety of its citizens is a principal concern and duty of the State of Nebraska; and (10) the reasonable regulation and limitation of a field of practice or occupation for the purpose of protecting the health and safety of the public is a legitimate and justified exercise of the police power of the state.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 2;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 2;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 2;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 2;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 38;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 4;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 19;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-341; Laws 2007, LB463, § 264.    


38-1003. Legislative intent.

The Legislature declares its intent to implement the findings specified in section 38-1002 through the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, to regulate the practices and professions of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, electrology, and body art and cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, and body art education in all forms, to limit the practice and teaching of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or body art to persons and institutions as stipulated in the act and to penalize persons violating the act. The Legislature directs that all interpretations of the act be made with full cognizance of the findings and intentions expressed in this section and section 38-1002.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 3;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 3;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 3;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 3;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 5;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 20;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-342; Laws 2007, LB463, § 265.    


38-1004. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1005 to 38-1056 apply.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 4;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 4;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 4;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 4;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 6;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-343; Laws 2007, LB463, § 266;    Laws 2016, LB898, § 2;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 4.    


38-1005. Apprentice, defined.

Apprentice means a person engaged in the study of any or all of the practices of cosmetology under the supervision of an instructor in an apprentice salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-344; Laws 2007, LB463, § 267;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 5.    


38-1006. Apprentice salon, defined.

Apprentice salon means a cosmetology salon licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for the teaching of any or all of the practices of cosmetology to apprentices.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-345; Laws 2007, LB463, § 268.    


38-1007. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 7;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-346; Laws 2007, LB463, § 269.    


38-1008. Body art, defined.

Body art means body piercing, branding, permanent color technology, and tattooing.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 7;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-346.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 270.    


38-1009. Body art facility, defined.

Body art facility means any room or space or any part thereof where body art is performed or where the business of body art is conducted.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 8;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-346.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 271.    


38-1010. Body piercing, defined.

Body piercing means puncturing the skin of a person by aid of needles or other instruments designed or used to puncture the skin for the purpose of inserting removable jewelry or other objects through the human body, except that body piercing does not include puncturing the external part of the human earlobe.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 9;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-346.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 272.    


38-1011. Branding, defined.

Branding means a permanent mark made on human tissue by burning with a hot iron or other instrument.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 10;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-346.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 273.    


38-1012. Charitable administration, defined.

Charitable administration means the performance of any or all of the practices of cosmetology or nail technology without compensation for the benefit of charitable purposes or organizations.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 8;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-347; Laws 2007, LB463, § 274.    


38-1013. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1014. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1015. Cosmetologist, defined.

Cosmetologist means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to perform all of the practices of cosmetology.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-350; Laws 2007, LB463, § 277.    


38-1016. Cosmetology, defined.

Cosmetology means the practice of performing for compensation any or all (1) of the acts of arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cleansing, cutting, bleaching, coloring, styling, or similar work upon the hair, wig, wiglet, or hairpiece of any person, by any means, with hands or a mechanical or electrical apparatus or appliance; (2) esthetics; (3) nail technology; and (4) other similar practices upon the hair, scalp, face, neck, arms, hands, feet, or nails of any person when performed for the purpose of beautifying or enhancing physical appearance or the teaching of any practice specified in this section for occupational purposes.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 12;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 6;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-351; Laws 2007, LB463, § 278.    


38-1017. Cosmetology establishment, defined.

Cosmetology establishment means a cosmetology salon, a mobile cosmetology salon, an esthetics salon, a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, an apprentice salon, or any other place in which any or all of the practices of cosmetology are performed on members of the general public for compensation or in which instruction or training in any or all of the practices of cosmetology is given, except when such practices constitute nonvocational training.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 13;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 7;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 7;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-352; Laws 2007, LB463, § 279;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 6.    


38-1018. Cosmetology salon, defined.

Cosmetology salon means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for the performance of any or all of the practices of cosmetology by persons licensed under such act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-353; Laws 2007, LB463, § 280;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 7.    


38-1019. Domestic administration, defined.

Domestic administration means the performance of any or all of the practices of cosmetology or nail technology upon members of a person's immediate family.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 17;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-356; Laws 2007, LB463, § 281.    


38-1020. Electrologist, defined.

Electrologist means a person who engages in the practice of electrolysis for permanent hair removal.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-356.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 282.    


38-1021. Electrology, defined.

Electrology means the art and practice relating to the removal of hair from normal skin of the human body by electrolysis.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-356.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 283.    


38-1022. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1023. Electrology instructor, defined.

Electrology instructor means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to teach any or all of the practices of electrology.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 7;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 21;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-356.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 285.    


38-1024. Electrolysis, defined.

Electrolysis means the permanent removal of hair by the application of an electrical current to the dermal papilla by a filament to cause decomposition, coagulation, or dehydration within the hair follicle by means of short wave or galvanic current or the blend, as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-356.05; Laws 2007, LB463, § 286.    


38-1025. Esthetician, defined.

Esthetician means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to perform all of the practices of esthetics.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 18;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-357; Laws 2007, LB463, § 287.    


38-1026. Esthetics, defined.

Esthetics means the practice for compensation of using an electrical or mechanical apparatus or appliance or applying and using cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, chemicals, tonics, lotions, creams, or other similar products upon the skin for personal beauty care.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 27;    R.S.1943, (1996), § 71-366; Laws 2002, LB 241, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-357.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 288.    


38-1027. Esthetics instructor, defined.

Esthetics instructor means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to teach any or all of the practices of esthetics in a school of cosmetology or a school of esthetics.

Source:Laws 2002, LB 241, § 10;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-357.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 289.    


38-1028. Esthetics salon, defined.

Esthetics salon means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for the performance of any or all of the practices of esthetics by persons licensed under such act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 28;    R.S.1943, (1996), § 71-367; Laws 2002, LB 241, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-357.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 290;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 8.    


38-1029. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1030. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1031. Instructor, defined.

Instructor means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to teach any or all of the practices of cosmetology in a school of cosmetology or an apprentice salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 20;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-359; Laws 2007, LB463, § 293.    


38-1032. Jurisdiction, defined.

Jurisdiction means the District of Columbia and any state, territory, or possession of the United States of America.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 21;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-360; Laws 2007, LB463, § 294.    


38-1033. Manicuring, defined.

Manicuring means the practice of performing any or all of the acts of cutting, shaping, trimming, polishing, coloring, tinting, cleansing, reshaping, or other similar cosmetic or sanitary acts on the natural fingernails or toenails of a person but does not include the practice of nail technology.

Source:Laws 2001, LB 209, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-360.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 295.    


38-1033.01. Mobile cosmetology salon, defined.

Mobile cosmetology salon means a self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed mobile unit licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act as a mobile site for the performance of the practices of cosmetology by persons licensed under the act.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 9.    


38-1033.02. Mobile nail technology salon, defined.

Mobile nail technology salon means a self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed mobile unit licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as a mobile site for the performance of the practices of nail technology by persons licensed under the act.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 10.    


38-1034. Nail technician, defined.

Nail technician means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to perform the practices of nail technology.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 296.    


38-1035. Nail technology, defined.

Nail technology means (1) attaching, applying, fitting, shaping, or adjusting artificial nails using acrylic, resin, fabric, or gel application systems, (2) sanitizing of the nail bed by brushing on or spraying material in preparation for attaching, fitting, shaping, or adjusting artificial nails using acrylic, resin, fabric, or gel application systems, (3) cutting, filing, buffing, shaping, trimming, polishing, coloring, tinting, cleansing, reshaping, or other cosmetic acts on the nails of a person when done in conjunction with the activities described in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this section, (4) the ability to detect infection, fungus, or nail disorders that contraindicate the application of artificial nails, and (5) cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, or similar acts on the hands or feet of any person when done in conjunction with the activities described in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this section. Nail technology does not include cutting nail beds, corns, or calluses or medical treatment involving the feet, hands, or nails.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 10;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 297.    


38-1036. Nail technology establishment, defined.

Nail technology establishment means a nail technology salon, a mobile nail technology salon, a nail technology school, or any other place in which the practices of nail technology are performed on members of the general public for compensation or in which instruction or training in the practices of nail technology is given, except when such practices constitute nonvocational training.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 298;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 11.    


38-1037. Nail technology instructor, defined.

Nail technology instructor means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to teach the practices of nail technology in a nail technology school.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 299.    


38-1038. Nail technology salon, defined.

Nail technology salon means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for the performance of the practices of nail technology by persons licensed under the act.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 13;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.05; Laws 2007, LB463, § 300;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 12.    


38-1039. Nail technology school, defined.

Nail technology school means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for teaching the practices of nail technology to nail technology students.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.06; Laws 2007, LB463, § 301.    


38-1040. Nail technology student, defined.

Nail technology student means a person engaged in the study of the practices of nail technology under the supervision of a nail technology instructor in a nail technology school.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.07; Laws 2007, LB463, § 302.    


38-1041. Nail technology student instructor, defined.

Nail technology student instructor means a person engaged in nail technology instructor's training in a nail technology school to teach nail technology students in a nail technology school under the supervision of a nail technology instructor.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 16;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.08; Laws 2007, LB463, § 303.    


38-1042. Nail technology temporary practitioner, defined.

Nail technology temporary practitioner means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to perform the practices of nail technology for a limited time under the supervision of a licensed nail technician or nail technology instructor.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 17;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-361.09; Laws 2007, LB463, § 304.    


38-1042.01. Natural hair braiding, defined.

(1) Natural hair braiding means the twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking, or braiding of hair by hand or with mechanical devices such as clips, combs, crochet hooks, curlers, curling irons, hairpins, rollers, scissors, blunt-tipped needles, thread, and hair binders.

(2) Natural hair braiding includes (a) the use of natural or synthetic hair extensions, natural or synthetic hair fibers, decorative beads, and other hair accessories, (b) minor trimming of natural hair or hair extensions incidental to twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking, or braiding hair, (c) the use of topical agents, such as conditioners, gels, moisturizers, oils, pomades, and shampoos, in conjunction with hair braiding, and (d) the making of wigs from natural hair, natural fibers, synthetic fibers, and hair extensions.

(3) Natural hair braiding does not include (a) the application of dyes, reactive chemicals, or other preparations to alter the color of hair or to straighten, curl, or alter the structure of hair or (b) the use of chemical hair joining agents such as synthetic tape, keratin bonds, or fusion bonds.

Source:Laws 2016, LB898, § 3.    


38-1043. Nonvocational training, defined.

Nonvocational training means the act of imparting knowledge of or skills in any or all of the practices of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or electrology to persons not licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act for the purpose of noncommercial use by those receiving such training.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 23;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 11;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 18;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-362; Laws 2007, LB463, § 305;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 13.    


38-1044. Permanent color technology, defined.

Permanent color technology means the process by which the skin is marked or colored by insertion of nontoxic dyes or pigments into or under the subcutaneous portion of the skin upon the body of a live human being so as to form indelible marks for cosmetic purposes.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 12;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-362.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 306.    


38-1045. Practices regulated under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, defined.

Practices regulated under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act means body art, cosmetology, electrology, esthetics, and nail technology.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 13;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-363.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 307.    


38-1046. Practitioner, defined.

Practitioner means a person who performs any or all of the practices of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or electrology for compensation or who performs any or all of the practices of body art.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 25;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 12;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 19;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 13;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 14;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-364; Laws 2007, LB463, § 308.    


38-1047. School of cosmetology, defined.

School of cosmetology means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for the teaching of any or all of the practices of cosmetology to students.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 26;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-365; Laws 2007, LB463, § 309.    


38-1048. School of electrolysis, defined.

School of electrolysis means a school for the education and training of electrologists.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 10;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 22;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-365.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 310.    


38-1049. School of esthetics, defined.

School of esthetics means a fixed structure or part thereof licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to serve as the site for teaching the practices of esthetics to esthetics students.

Source:Laws 2002, LB 241, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-365.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 311.    


38-1050. Student, defined.

Student means a person engaged in the study of any or all of the practices of cosmetology or esthetics under the supervision of an instructor or esthetics instructor in a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 29;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 13;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 15;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 23;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-368; Laws 2007, LB463, § 312.    


38-1051. Student instructor, defined.

Student instructor means a person engaged in instructor's or esthetics instructor's training in a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics and in teaching students in a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics under the supervision of an instructor.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 30;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 16;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-369; Laws 2007, LB463, § 313.    


38-1052. Supervision, defined.

Supervision means direct day-to-day knowledge of and control over the actions of one individual by another.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 31;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-370; Laws 2007, LB463, § 314.    


38-1053. Tattoo, defined.

Tattoo means the indelible decorative mark, figure, or design introduced by insertion of nontoxic dyes or pigments into or under the subcutaneous portion of the skin upon the body of a live human being.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 15;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-370.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 315.    


38-1054. Tattooing, defined.

Tattooing means the process by which the skin is marked or colored by insertion of nontoxic dyes or pigments into or under the subcutaneous portion of the skin upon the body of a live human being so as to form indelible marks for decorative or figurative purposes.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 16;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-370.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 316.    


38-1055. Teaching, defined.

Teaching means the act of imparting and demonstrating knowledge of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or electrology theory and practices to students, nail technology students, or apprentices in an apprentice salon, a school of cosmetology, a nail technology school, or a school of esthetics by an instructor, an esthetics instructor, a nail technology instructor, a nail technology student instructor, or a student instructor for the purpose of preparing the students, nail technology students, nail technology student instructors, or apprentices to engage in the occupations of cosmetology, nail technology, esthetics, or electrology.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 32;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 14;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 20;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 17;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 24;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-371; Laws 2007, LB463, § 317.    


38-1056. Temporary practitioner, defined.

Temporary practitioner means a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to perform any or all of the practices of cosmetology for a limited time under the supervision at all times of a designated supervisor.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 33;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-372; Laws 2007, LB463, § 318.    


38-1057. Board; members; qualifications.

(1) The board shall consist of ten professional members, one owner of a tanning facility as defined in section 71-3902, and two public members appointed pursuant to section 38-158. The professional and public members shall meet the requirements of sections 38-164 and 38-165, respectively.

(2) The professional members shall include:

(a) One school owner who is also licensed as either a cosmetologist, nail technician, or esthetician;

(b) One salon owner who is licensed as a cosmetologist;

(c) Two cosmetologists who are not school owners;

(d) One nail technician who is not a school owner;

(e) One esthetician who is not a school owner;

(f) One electrologist;

(g) One practitioner of body art;

(h) One nail technology instructor or esthetics instructor who is not a school owner; and

(i) One cosmetology instructor who is not a school owner.

(3) No members of the board who are school owners, salon owners, tanning facility owners, electrologists, nail technicians, instructors, cosmetologists, or practitioners of body art may be affiliated with the same establishment.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 35;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 3;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 25;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 15;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 21;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 18;    Laws 2005, LB 382, § 9;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-374; Laws 2007, LB463, § 319;    Laws 2014, LB132, § 11.    


38-1058. Cosmetology; licensure required.

It shall be unlawful for any person, group, company, or other entity to engage in any of the following acts without being duly licensed as required by the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, unless specifically excepted by such act:

(1) To engage in or follow or to advertise or hold oneself out as engaging in or following any of the practices of cosmetology or to act as a practitioner;

(2) To engage in or advertise or hold oneself out as engaging in the teaching of any of the practices of cosmetology; or

(3) To operate or advertise or hold oneself out as operating a cosmetology establishment in which any of the practices of cosmetology or the teaching of any of the practices of cosmetology are carried out.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 46;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-385; Laws 2007, LB463, § 320;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 14.    


38-1059. Electrology; licensure required.

No person, group, company, limited liability company, or other entity shall engage in any of the following acts without being duly licensed as required by the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, unless specifically excepted by such act:

(1) To engage in or follow or to advertise or hold oneself out as engaging in or following any of the practices of electrology; or

(2) To engage in or advertise or hold oneself out as engaging in the teaching of any of the practices of electrology.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 20;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 25;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-385.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 321.    


38-1060. Body art; license required; conditions.

(1) No person shall perform any of the practices of body art or display a sign to, or in any other way, advertise or purport to be engaged in the business of practicing body art unless such person is licensed by the department.

(2) An applicant for licensure in any of the practices of body art shall show to the satisfaction of the department that the applicant:

(a) Has complied with the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and the applicable rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(b) Is at least eighteen years of age;

(c) Has completed formal education equivalent to a United States high school education;

(d) Has submitted evidence of training or experience prescribed or approved by the board to ensure the protection of the public in performing the practices of body art for which the applicant is seeking licensure; and

(e) Has successfully completed an examination prescribed or approved by the board to test the applicant's knowledge of safety, sanitation, and sterilization techniques and infection control practices and requirements.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 25;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-385.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 322.    


38-1061. Licensure; categories; use of titles prohibited; practice in licensed establishment or facility.

(1) All practitioners shall be licensed by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act in a category or categories appropriate to their practice.

(2) Licensure shall be required before any person may engage in the full, unsupervised practice or teaching of cosmetology, electrology, esthetics, nail technology, or body art, and no person may assume the title of cosmetologist, electrologist, esthetician, instructor, nail technician, nail technology instructor, esthetics instructor, permanent color technician, tattoo artist, body piercer, or body brander without first being licensed by the department.

(3) All licensed practitioners shall practice in an appropriate licensed establishment or facility.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 47;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 21;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 27;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 22;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 19;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-386; Laws 2007, LB463, § 323;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 15.    


38-1062. Licensure by examination; requirements.

In order to be licensed by the department by examination, an individual shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) Has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the beginning date of the examination for which application is being made;

(2) Has completed formal education equivalent to a United States high school education;

(3) Possesses a minimum competency in the knowledge and skills necessary to perform the practices for which licensure is sought, as evidenced by successful completion of an examination in the appropriate practices approved by the board and administered by the department;

(4) Possesses sufficient ability to read the English language to permit the applicant to practice in a safe manner, as evidenced by successful completion of the written examination; and

(5) Has graduated from a school of cosmetology or an apprentice salon in or outside of Nebraska, a school of esthetics in or outside of Nebraska, or a school of electrolysis upon completion of a program of studies appropriate to the practices for which licensure is being sought, as evidenced by a diploma or certificate from the school or apprentice salon to the effect that the applicant has complied with the following:

(a) For licensure as a cosmetologist, the program of studies shall consist of a minimum of one thousand eight hundred hours;

(b) For licensure as an esthetician, the program of studies shall consist of a minimum of six hundred hours;

(c) For licensure as a cosmetology instructor, the program of studies shall consist of a minimum of six hundred hours beyond the program of studies required for licensure as a cosmetologist;

(d) For licensure as a cosmetology instructor, be currently licensed as a cosmetologist in Nebraska, as evidenced by possession of a valid Nebraska cosmetology license;

(e) For licensure as an electrologist, the program of studies shall consist of a minimum of six hundred hours;

(f) For licensure as an electrology instructor, be currently licensed as an electrologist in Nebraska and have practiced electrology actively for at least two years immediately before the application; and

(g) For licensure as an esthetics instructor, completion of a program of studies consisting of a minimum of three hundred hours beyond the program of studies required for licensure as an esthetician and current licensure as an esthetician in Nebraska.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 48;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 6;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 22;    Laws 1996, LB 1155, § 26;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 168;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 23;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 26;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-387; Laws 2007, LB463, § 324;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 16.    


Cross References

38-1063. Application for examination.

No application for any type of licensure shall be considered complete unless all information requested in the application has been supplied, all seals and signatures required have been obtained, and all supporting and documentary evidence has been received by the department.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 49;    Laws 1989, LB 344, § 8;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 82;    R.S.1943, (2003) § 71-388; Laws 2007, LB463, § 325;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 17.    


38-1064. Licensure; examinations; duties; examinees.

(1) The board shall approve and the department shall cause examinations to be administered as required for licensure under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act for the purpose of establishing the possession of minimum competency in the knowledge and skills required on the part of the applicant.

(2) No person shall be permitted to take an examination for licensure unless he or she has met all the requirements of subdivisions (1), (2), and (5) of section 38-1062 except for persons taking the examination under section 38-1067.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 50;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 7;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 23;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 27;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-389; Laws 2007, LB463, § 326.    


38-1065. Examinations; requirements; grades.

(1) Examinations approved by the board may be national standardized examinations, but in all cases the examinations shall be related to the knowledge and skills necessary to perform the practices being examined and shall be related to the curricula required to be taught in schools of cosmetology, schools of esthetics, or schools of electrolysis.

(2) Practical examinations may be offered as either written or hands-on and shall be conducted in such a manner that the identity of the applicant is not disclosed to the examiners in any way.

(3) In order to successfully complete the examination, an applicant shall obtain an average grade of seventy-five percent on all examinations.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 51;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 8;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 24;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 134;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-390; Laws 2007, LB296, § 366;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 327;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 18.    


38-1066. Reciprocity; requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) The department may grant a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction to any person who meets the requirements of subdivisions (1) and (2) of section 38-1062 and who presents proof of the following:

(a) That he or she is currently licensed in the appropriate category in another jurisdiction and that he or she has never been disciplined or had his or her license revoked. An applicant seeking licensure as an instructor in the manner provided in this section shall be licensed as an instructor in another jurisdiction. An applicant seeking licensure as a cosmetologist in the manner provided in this section shall be licensed as a cosmetologist in another jurisdiction. An applicant seeking licensure as an esthetician in the manner provided in this section shall be licensed as a cosmetologist, an esthetician, or an equivalent title in another jurisdiction. An applicant seeking licensure as an esthetics instructor in the manner provided in this section shall be licensed as a cosmetology instructor, esthetics instructor, or the equivalent in another jurisdiction. An applicant seeking licensure as an electrologist or an electrology instructor in the manner provided in this section shall be licensed as an electrologist or an electrology instructor, respectively, in another jurisdiction;

(b) That such license was issued on the basis of an examination and the results of the examination. If an examination was not required for licensure in the other jurisdiction, the applicant shall take the Nebraska examination; and

(c) That the applicant complies with the hour requirements of subdivision (5) of section 38-1062 through any combination of hours earned as a student or apprentice in a cosmetology establishment licensed or approved by the jurisdiction in which it was located and hour-equivalents granted for recent work experience, with hour-equivalents recognized as follows:

(i) Each month of full-time practice as an instructor within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as one hundred hour-equivalents toward an instructor's license;

(ii) Each month of full-time practice as a cosmetologist within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as one hundred hour-equivalents toward a cosmetology license;

(iii) Each month of full-time practice as an esthetician within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as one hundred hour-equivalents toward an esthetician's license;

(iv) Each month of full-time practice as an esthetics instructor within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as one hundred hour-equivalents toward an esthetics instructor's license; and

(v) Each month of full-time practice as an electrologist within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as one hundred hour-equivalents toward an electrologist's license.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01 and may practice under the temporary license without supervision.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 55;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 9;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 26;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 24;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-394; Laws 2007, LB463, § 328;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 43;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 19.    


38-1067. Foreign-trained applicants; examination requirements.

(1) Applicants for Nebraska licensure who received their training in foreign countries may not be licensed by waiver of examination except as provided in section 38-129.01. In order to be considered eligible to take the examination, they shall meet the requirements of subdivisions (1) and (2) of section 38-1062 and, in order to establish equivalency with subdivision (5) of section 38-1062, shall present proof satisfactory to the department of one of the following:

(a) Current licensure or equivalent official recognition of the right to practice in a foreign country; or

(b) At least five years of practice within the eight years immediately preceding the application.

(2) In all cases such applicants shall take the examination for licensure in the State of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 56;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 10;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 27;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-395; Laws 2007, LB463, § 329;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 44.    


38-1068. License; display.

Every person holding a license issued by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act shall display it in a conspicuous place in his or her principal place of employment, and every cosmetology establishment and body art facility shall so display the then current licenses of all practitioners there employed.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 57;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 29;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 20;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-396; Laws 2007, LB463, § 330.    


38-1069. License; when required; temporary practitioner; license.

A license as a temporary practitioner shall be required before any person may act as a temporary practitioner, and no person shall assume any title indicative of being a temporary practitioner without first being so licensed by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 59;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 22;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-398; Laws 2007, LB463, § 331;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 20.    


Cross References

38-1070. Temporary license; general requirements.

An individual making application for a temporary license, other than a temporary license issued as provided in section 38-129.01, shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the requirements for the specific type of license applied for.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 60;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-399; Laws 2007, LB463, § 332;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 45;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 21.    


38-1071. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1072. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1073. Licensure as temporary practitioner; requirements.

An applicant for licensure as a temporary practitioner shall show evidence that his or her completed application for regular licensure has been accepted by the department, that he or she has not failed any portion of the licensure examination, and that he or she has been accepted for work in a licensed cosmetology establishment under the supervision of a licensed practitioner.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 65;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,104; Laws 2007, LB463, § 335;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 22.    


38-1074. Temporary licensure; expiration dates; extension.

Licensure as a temporary practitioner shall expire eight weeks following the date of issuance or upon receipt of examination results, whichever occurs first. The department may extend the license an additional eight weeks.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 66;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 13;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 32;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 28;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 24;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 29;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,105; Laws 2007, LB463, § 336;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 23.    


38-1075. Act; activities exempt.

The Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act does not apply to or restrict the activities of the following:

(1) Any person holding a current license or certificate issued pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act when engaged in the usual and customary practice of his or her profession or occupation;

(2) Any person engaging solely in earlobe piercing;

(3) Any person engaging solely in natural hair braiding;

(4) Any person when engaged in domestic or charitable administration;

(5) Any person performing any of the practices of cosmetology or nail technology solely for theatrical presentations or other entertainment functions;

(6) Any person practicing cosmetology, electrology, esthetics, or nail technology within the confines of a hospital, nursing home, massage therapy establishment, funeral establishment, or other similar establishment or facility licensed or otherwise regulated by the department, except that no unlicensed person may accept compensation for such practice;

(7) Any person providing services during a bona fide emergency;

(8) Any retail or wholesale establishment or any person engaged in the sale of cosmetics, nail technology products, or other beauty products when the products are applied by the customer or when the application of the products is in direct connection with the sale or attempted sale of such products at retail;

(9) Any person when engaged in nonvocational training;

(10) A person demonstrating on behalf of a manufacturer or distributor any cosmetology, nail technology, electrolysis, or body art equipment or supplies if such demonstration is performed without charge;

(11) Any person or licensee engaged in the practice or teaching of manicuring;

(12) Any person or licensee engaged in the practice of airbrush tanning or temporary, nonpermanent airbrush tattooing; and

(13) Any person applying cosmetics.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 67;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 14;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 97;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 33;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 44;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 16;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 28;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 33;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,106; Laws 2007, LB463, § 337;    Laws 2016, LB898, § 4;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 24.    


38-1076. Epilators; requirements.

All epilators used by an electrologist shall be approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration.

Source:Laws 1995, LB 83, § 40;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 30;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,106.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 338.    


38-1077. Continuing competency requirements; waiver; limited exemptions.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may waive continuing competency requirements, in part or in total, for any two-year licensing period when a licensee submits documentation that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented completion of such requirements as provided in section 38-146. In addition to circumstances determined by the department to be beyond the licensee's control pursuant to such section, the following exemptions shall apply:

(1) An instructor who meets the continuing competency requirements for the instructor's license shall be exempt from meeting the continuing competency requirements for his or her cosmetologist license for that biennium;

(2) An electrology instructor who meets the continuing competency requirements for the electrology instructor's license shall be exempt from meeting the continuing competency requirements for his or her electrologist license for that biennium; and

(3) An esthetics instructor who meets the continuing education requirements for the esthetics instructor's license shall be exempt from meeting the continuing education requirements for his or her esthetician license for that biennium.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 78;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 37;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 31;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 46;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,117; Laws 2007, LB463, § 339.    


38-1078. Cosmetology establishment; license required; conditions.

No person shall operate or profess or attempt to operate a cosmetology establishment unless such establishment is licensed by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. The department shall not issue or renew a license for a cosmetology establishment until all requirements of the act have been complied with. No person shall engage in any of the practices of cosmetology in any location or premises other than a licensed cosmetology establishment except as specifically permitted in the act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 80;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,119; Laws 2007, LB463, § 340.    


38-1079. Licensed cosmetology establishment; nail technology services.

A licensed cosmetology establishment is not required to be licensed as a nail technology salon to provide nail technology services by either a licensed cosmetologist or by a licensed nail technologist.

Source:Laws 2001, LB 209, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,119.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 341.    


38-1080. Body art facility; license required; renewal.

(1) No person shall establish or operate a body art facility in this state unless such facility is licensed by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. The department shall not issue or renew a license for a body art facility until all applicable requirements of the act have been complied with and the facility has been inspected by the department. No person shall engage in any of the practices of body art in any location or premises other than a licensed body art facility except as specifically permitted in the act. The department shall issue a license to operate a body art facility to each qualified applicant.

(2) The procedure for renewing a body art facility license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, no body art facility license may be renewed unless the facility has attained a rating of satisfactory on its most recent operation inspection. The license of any facility not attaining such rating shall be placed on inactive status and shall not be open to the public until all deficiencies have been corrected.

(3) The license of a body art facility that has been revoked for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such facility can reopen for business.

(4) Each body art facility license shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such facility may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 26;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,119.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 342.    


38-1081. Body art facility; operating requirements.

(1) In order to maintain a license in good standing, each body art facility or the owner of such facility or his or her agent shall:

(a) At all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(b) Notify the department at least thirty days prior to any change of ownership, name, or address, and within one week after a facility is permanently closed, except in emergency circumstances as determined by the department;

(c) Permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during normal operating hours, without prior notice, and the owner and manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas, personnel, and records requested by the inspector; and

(d) Display in a conspicuous place near the place where body art is performed the following records:

(i) The then current license to operate the body art facility;

(ii) The then current license of each person performing body art; and

(iii) The inspection report from the most recent operation inspection.

(2) The owner of each body art facility shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the facility is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the facility.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 27;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,119.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 343.    


38-1082. Salon, defined.

For purposes of sections 38-1083 to 38-1090, salon means cosmetology salon and esthetics salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 81;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 32;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,120; Laws 2007, LB463, § 344.    


38-1083. Salon; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a salon by the department, an applicant shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) The proposed salon shall be a fixed, permanent structure or part of one;

(2) The proposed salon shall be physically separated from all other business or residential activities except barbering, manicuring, pedicuring, and retail sales;

(3) The separation required in subdivision (2) of this section shall be by fixed walls or by partitions not less than six feet high;

(4) Areas of the salon used for barbering, manicuring, or pedicuring shall be clearly identified as such to the public by a sign and shall be visually distinct from other areas of the salon;

(5) All areas of the salon, including those used for manicures, pedicures, or retail sales, shall comply with the sanitary requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(6) A salon located in a residence shall be entirely distinct and separate from any living quarters, except that there may be one connecting door to the living portion of the dwelling as an access entrance to the salon for the owner or operator, but such entrance shall not be for the use of the general public;

(7) The entrance into the proposed salon used by the general public shall lead directly from the outside to the salon, except that a salon located in a commercial building may have its entrance open from a public area such as a foyer, hallway, mall, concourse, or retail sales floor. Any salon in existence and licensed on August 30, 1987, shall not be required to comply with this subdivision;

(8) The proposed salon shall have at least one hundred fifty square feet of floor space. If more than one practitioner is to be employed in the salon at the same time, the salon shall contain an additional space of at least fifty square feet for each additional practitioner, except that a salon employing a licensee exclusively to perform home services need not provide additional space for such employee;

(9) The proposed salon shall include toilet facilities unless the salon is located in a commercial building in which public toilet facilities are available that open directly off of a public area; and

(10) The proposed salon shall meet all state or local building code and fire code requirements.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 82;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 19;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,121; Laws 2007, LB463, § 345.    


38-1084. Salon license; application; procedure; additional information.

Any person seeking a license to operate a salon shall submit a completed application at least thirty days before construction or remodeling of the building proposed for use is scheduled to begin. If no construction or remodeling is planned, the application shall be submitted at least thirty days before the proposed opening of the salon for operation. Along with the application the applicant shall submit:

(1) A detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed salon sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of section 38-1083; and

(2) Evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage for the proposed salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 83;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,122; Laws 2007, LB463, § 346.    


38-1085. Salon; application; review; denial; issuance; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a salon shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. In the event an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial, and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. In the event an application is approved, the department shall issue the applicant a certificate of consideration to operate a salon pending an operation inspection. The department shall conduct an operation inspection of each salon issued a certificate of consideration within six months of the issuance of such certificate. Salons passing the inspection shall be issued a permanent license. Salons failing the inspection shall submit within fifteen days evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If evidence is not submitted within fifteen days or if after a second inspection the salon does not receive a satisfactory rating, it shall immediately relinquish its certificate of consideration and cease operation.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 84;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,123; Laws 2007, LB463, § 347.    


38-1086. Licensed salon; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each salon shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The salon shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(2) The salon owner or his or her agent shall notify the department at least thirty days prior to any change of ownership, name, or address, and within one week if a salon is permanently closed, except in emergency circumstances as determined by the department;

(3) No salon shall permit any unlicensed person to perform any of the practices of cosmetology within its confines or employment;

(4) The salon shall display a name upon, over, or near the entrance door distinguishing it as a salon;

(5) The salon shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the salon, without prior notice, and the owner and manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the salon, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(6) The salon shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license or certificate of consideration to operate a salon;

(b) The current licenses of all persons employed by or working in the salon; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent operation inspection;

(7) At no time shall a salon employ more employees than permitted by the square footage requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act; and

(8) The salon shall not knowingly permit its employees to use or consume intoxicating beverages upon its premises.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 85;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,124; Laws 2007, LB463, § 348;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 25.    


38-1087. Salon license; renewal; insurance.

The procedure for renewing a salon license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the salon shall submit evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage for the salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 86;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 86;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,125; Laws 2007, LB463, § 349.    


38-1088. Salon license; revoked or expired; effect.

The license of a salon that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 87;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,126; Laws 2007, LB463, § 350.    


38-1089. Salon license; change of ownership or location; effect.

Each salon license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 88;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,127; Laws 2007, LB463, § 351.    


38-1090. Salon owner; liability.

The owner of each salon shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the salon is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 89;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,128; Laws 2007, LB463, § 352.    


38-1091. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1092. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1093. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1094. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1095. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1096. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-1097. School of cosmetology; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a school of cosmetology by the department, an applicant shall meet and present to the department evidence of meeting the following requirements:

(1) The proposed school shall be a fixed permanent structure or part of one;

(2) The proposed school shall have a contracted enrollment of at least ten full-time or part-time students;

(3) The proposed school shall contain at least three thousand five hundred square feet of floor space and facilities, staff, apparatus, and equipment appropriate to its projected enrollment in accordance with the standards established by rule and regulation; and

(4) The proposed school shall not have the same entrance as or direct access to a cosmetology salon, esthetics salon, or nail technology salon.

A school of cosmetology is not required to be licensed as a school of esthetics in order to provide an esthetics training program or as a school of nail technology in order to provide a nail technology training program.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 97;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 33;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,136; Laws 2007, LB463, § 359;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 26.    


38-1098. School of cosmetology license; school of esthetics license; application.

Any person seeking a license to operate a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall submit a completed application at least thirty days before construction or remodeling of the building proposed for use is scheduled to begin. If no construction or remodeling is planned, the application shall be received at least thirty days before the proposed opening of the school.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 98;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 38;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 169;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 35;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 31;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,137; Laws 2007, LB463, § 360.    


38-1099. School of cosmetology license; school of esthetics license; application; additional information.

Along with the application the applicant for a license to operate a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall submit:

(1) A detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed school building sufficient to show compliance with the relevant rules and regulations;

(2) Evidence of minimal property damage, personal injury, and liability insurance coverage for the proposed school;

(3) A copy of the curriculum to be taught for all courses;

(4) A copy of the school catalog, handbook, or policies and the student contract; and

(5) A list of the names and credentials of all licensees to be employed by the school.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 99;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 36;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,138; Laws 2007, LB463, § 361;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 27.    


38-10,100. School of esthetics license; application; additional information.

In order to be licensed as a school of esthetics by the department, an applicant shall meet and present to the department evidence of meeting the following requirements:

(1) The proposed school shall be a fixed permanent structure or part of one;

(2) The proposed school shall have a contracted enrollment of at least four full-time or part-time students;

(3) The proposed school shall contain at least one thousand square feet of floor space and facilities, staff, apparatus, and equipment appropriate to its projected enrollment in accordance with the standards established by rule and regulation; and

(4) The proposed school shall not have the same entrance as or direct access to a cosmetology salon, an esthetics salon, or a nail technology salon.

Source:Laws 2002, LB 241, § 34;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,138.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 362;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 28.    


38-10,101. School of cosmetology license; school of esthetics license; application; review; procedure; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. If an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. If an application is accepted, the department shall immediately conduct an accreditation inspection of the proposed school. A school passing the inspection shall be issued a license and may begin operation as soon as the inspection results are received. If the proposed school fails the inspection, the applicant shall submit, within fifteen days, evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If, after a second inspection to be conducted within thirty days of receipt of evidence, the school does not receive a satisfactory rating, or if evidence is not received within fifteen days, the application may be denied.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 100;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 41;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 37;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 32;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,139; Laws 2007, LB463, § 363.    


38-10,102. Licensed school; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The school shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(2) The school owner or owners or the authorized agent thereof shall notify the department at least thirty days prior to any change of ownership, name, or address, and at least sixty days prior to closure, except in emergency circumstances as determined by the department;

(3) No school shall permit anyone other than a student, student instructor, or instructor to perform any of the practices of cosmetology or esthetics within its confines or employ, except that such restriction shall not prevent a school from inviting guest educators who are not licensed to provide education to students or student instructors if the guest educator does not perform any of the practices of cosmetology or esthetics;

(4) The school shall display a name upon or near the entrance door designating it as a school of cosmetology or a school of esthetics;

(5) The school shall display in a conspicuous place within the clinic area a sign reading: All services in this school are performed by students who are training in cosmetology or esthetics, as applicable. A notice to such effect shall also appear in all advertising conducted by the school for its clinic services;

(6) The school shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the school without prior notice, and the owner or manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the school, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(7) The school shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license to operate a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics;

(b) The current licenses of all persons licensed under the act, except students, employed by or working in the school; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent accreditation inspection;

(8) At no time shall a school enroll more students than permitted by the act or the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(9) The school shall not knowingly permit its students, employees, or clients to use, consume, serve, or in any other manner possess or distribute intoxicating beverages or controlled substances upon its premises;

(10) No instructor or student instructor shall perform, and no school shall permit such person to perform, any of the practices of cosmetology or esthetics on the public in a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics other than that part of the practical work which pertains directly to the teaching of practical subjects to students or student instructors and in no instance shall complete cosmetology or esthetics services be provided for a client unless done in a demonstration class of theoretical or practical studies;

(11) The school shall maintain space, staff, library, teaching apparatus, and equipment as established by rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(12) The school shall keep a daily record of the attendance and clinical performance of each student and student instructor;

(13) The school shall maintain regular class and instructor hours and shall require the minimum curriculum;

(14) The school shall establish and maintain criteria and standards for student grading, evaluation, and performance and shall award a certificate or diploma to a student only upon completing a full course of study in compliance with such standards, except that no student shall receive such certificate or diploma until he or she has satisfied or made an agreement with the school to satisfy all outstanding financial obligations to the school;

(15) The school shall maintain on file the enrollment of each student;

(16) The school shall maintain a report indicating the students and student instructors enrolled, the hours earned, the instructors employed, the hours of operation, and such other pertinent information as required by the department; and

(17) The school shall print and provide to each student a copy of the school rules, which shall not be inconsistent with the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, the Uniform Credentialing Act, or the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under either act and which shall include policies of the school with respect to tuition, reimbursement, conduct, attendance, grading, earning of hours, demerits, penalties, dismissal, graduation requirements, dress, and other information sufficient to advise the student of the standards he or she will be required to maintain. The department may review any school's rules to determine their consistency with the intent and content of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and the rules and regulations and may overturn any school rules found not to be in accord.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 101;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 20;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 42;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 38;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 33;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,140; Laws 2007, LB463, § 364;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 29.    


38-10,103. School or apprentice salon; operation; student; apprentice; student instructor; requirements.

In order to maintain a school or apprentice salon license in good standing, each school or apprentice salon shall operate in accordance with the following:

(1) Every person accepted for enrollment as a standard student or apprentice shall show evidence that he or she attained the age of seventeen years on or before the date of his or her enrollment in a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon, has completed the equivalent of a high school education, has been accepted for enrollment at a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon, and has not undertaken any training in cosmetology or esthetics without being enrolled as a student or apprentice;

(2)(a) Every person accepted for enrollment as a special study student or apprentice shall show evidence that he or she:

(i) Has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the date of enrollment in a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon;

(ii) Has completed the tenth grade;

(iii) Has been accepted for enrollment at a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon; and

(iv) Is actively continuing his or her formal high school education on a full-time basis as determined by the department.

(b) An applicant for enrollment as a special study student or apprentice shall not have undertaken any training in cosmetology or esthetics without being enrolled as a student or apprentice.

(c) Special study students shall be limited to attending a school of cosmetology, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon for no more than eight hours per week during the school year;

(3) Every person accepted for enrollment as a student instructor shall show evidence of current licensure as a cosmetologist or esthetician in Nebraska and completion of formal education equivalent to a United States high school education; and

(4) No school of cosmetology, school of esthetics, or apprentice salon shall accept an individual for enrollment who does not provide evidence of meeting the age and education requirements.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 63;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 11;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 31;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 26;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 28;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,102; Laws 2007, LB463, § 365;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 30.    


38-10,104. Licensed school; additional operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) All persons accepted for enrollment as students shall meet the qualifications established in section 38-10,103;

(2) The school shall, at all times the school is in operation, have at least one instructor in the school for each twenty students or fraction thereof enrolled in the school, except that freshman and advanced students shall be taught by different instructors in separate classes;

(3) The school shall not permit any student to render clinical services on members of the public with or without fees until such student has satisfactorily completed the freshman curriculum, except that the board may establish guidelines by which it may approve such practices as part of the freshman curriculum;

(4) No school shall pay direct compensation to any of its students. Student instructors may be paid as determined by the school;

(5) All students and student instructors shall be under the supervision of an instructor at all times, except that students shall be under the direct supervision of an instructor or student instructor at all times when cosmetology or esthetics services are being taught or performed and student instructors may independently supervise students after successfully completing at least one-half of the required instructor program;

(6) No student shall be permitted by the school to train or work in a school in any manner for more than ten hours a day; and

(7) The school shall not credit a student or student instructor with hours except when such hours were earned in the study or practice of cosmetology, esthetics, nail technology, or barbering in accordance with the required curriculum. Hours shall be credited on a daily basis. Once credited, hours cannot be removed or disallowed except by the department upon a finding that the hours have been wrongfully allowed.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 102;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 21;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 43;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 39;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 34;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,141; Laws 2007, LB463, § 366;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 31.    


38-10,105. Transfer of cosmetology student; requirements.

A student may transfer from one school of cosmetology to another school at any time without penalty if all tuition obligations to the school from which the student is transferring have been honored and if the student secures a letter from the school from which he or she is transferring stating that the student has not left any unfulfilled tuition obligations and stating the number of hours earned by the student at such school, including any hours the student transferred into that school, and the dates of attendance of the student at that school. The student may not begin training at the new school until such conditions have been fulfilled. The school to which the student is transferring shall be entitled to receive from the student's previous school, upon request, all records pertaining to the student.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 103;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,142; Laws 2007, LB463, § 367;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 32.    


38-10,106. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-10,107. Licensed barber; licensed cosmetologist; waiver of course requirements; conditions.

(1) Barbers licensed in the State of Nebraska attending a school of cosmetology may be given credit of one thousand hours of training applied toward the course hours required for graduation.

(2) Cosmetologists licensed in the State of Nebraska attending a barber school or college may be given credit of one thousand hours of training applied toward the course hours required for graduation.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 105;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,144; Laws 2007, LB463, § 369;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 33.    


Cross References

38-10,108. School of cosmetology; student instructors; limitation.

No school of cosmetology shall at any time enroll more than three student instructors for each full-time instructor actively working in and employed by the school.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 107;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,146; Laws 2007, LB463, § 370;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 34.    


38-10,109. School licenses; renewal; requirements; inactive status; revocation; effect.

(1) The procedure for renewing a school license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall provide evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage and shall receive a satisfactory rating on an accreditation inspection conducted by the department within the six months immediately prior to the date of license renewal.

(2) Any school of cosmetology or school of esthetics which has current accreditation from an accrediting organization approved by the board shall be considered to satisfy the accreditation requirements outlined in this section, except that successful completion of an operation inspection shall be required. Each school of cosmetology or school of esthetics, whether or not it is accredited, shall satisfy all curriculum and sanitation requirements outlined in the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to maintain its license.

(3) Any school not able to meet the requirements for license renewal shall have its license placed on inactive status until all deficiencies have been corrected, and the school shall not operate in any manner during the time its license is inactive. If the deficiencies are not corrected within six months of the date of license renewal, the license may be revoked unless the department approves an extension of the time limit. The license of a school that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such school may reopen.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 108;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 45;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 41;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 88;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 36;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,147; Laws 2007, LB463, § 371;    Laws 2021, LB528, § 7.    


38-10,110. School license; change of ownership or location; effect.

Each school license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or change in the county of location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such school may reopen, except that a school moving to a new location within the same county may do so by filing an application as required by the department, paying the required fee, submitting a new floor plan, and passing an operation inspection. Materials shall be received by the department no less than thirty days prior to the move, and all provisions of this section shall be complied with before the school may begin operation at its new location.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 109;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,148; Laws 2007, LB463, § 372.    


38-10,111. School of cosmetology; satellite classroom; license; requirements; waiver.

Any school of cosmetology may apply to the department for a license to operate a satellite classroom. A satellite classroom shall be subject to all requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act, except as follows:

(1) A satellite classroom shall consist of classroom facilities only, and no clinical activities may be performed thereat. A satellite classroom shall contain a minimum of four hundred square feet of floor space;

(2) Students located at a satellite classroom may move to the home school, or vice versa, without being considered transfer students;

(3) Students in a satellite classroom shall be maintained on the same monthly report form as students in the home school; and

(4) No satellite classroom may operate in any manner unless the home school is at the time operating and possesses a full active license, except a satellite classroom may keep different days and hours of operation from those of its home school. The license to operate a satellite classroom shall be revoked or shall expire at the same time as that for its home school.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to modify or waive any of the operating or student requirements of a school of cosmetology for a satellite classroom if the department determines that such requirements are not applicable or appropriate to a satellite classroom.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 110;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,149; Laws 2007, LB463, § 373.    


38-10,112. School; owner; liability; manager required.

(1) The owner of each school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the school is operated in compliance with all applicable laws and rules and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the school.

(2) Each school of cosmetology or school of esthetics shall be operated by a manager who shall be present on the premises of the school no less than thirty-five hours each week. The manager may have responsibility for the daily operation of the school or satellite classroom.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 111;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 46;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 42;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 37;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,150; Laws 2007, LB463, § 374;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 35.    


38-10,113. Apprentice salon; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as an apprentice salon by the department, an applicant shall meet and present to the department evidence of meeting the following requirements:

(1) The proposed apprentice salon shall hold a current active license as a cosmetology salon or esthetics salon;

(2) The proposed apprentice salon shall employ or plan to employ one active instructor for each two apprentices or fraction thereof it enrolls; and

(3) The proposed apprentice salon shall provide an area of not less than one hundred square feet to be used solely for educational purposes.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 112;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 43;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,151; Laws 2007, LB463, § 375.    


38-10,114. Apprentice salon license; application; procedure; additional information.

Any person seeking a license to operate an apprentice salon shall submit a complete application at least thirty days before construction or remodeling of the building proposed for use is scheduled to begin. If no construction or remodeling is planned, the application shall be received at least thirty days before training of apprentices is scheduled to begin. Along with the application the applicant shall submit:

(1) A detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed apprentice salon sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(2) Evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage;

(3) A list of the names and qualifications of all instructors employed or proposed to be employed;

(4) Completed enrollment forms for all apprentices proposed to be enrolled;

(5) A copy of the rules the salon proposes to use for its apprentices;

(6) A copy of the apprentice contract;

(7) A copy of the curriculum proposed to be used;

(8) A proposed schedule of training for each apprentice; and

(9) A completed cosmetology education evaluation scale.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 113;    Laws 1997, LB 752, § 171;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,152; Laws 2007, LB463, § 376.    


38-10,115. Apprentice salon license; application; review; procedure; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate an apprentice salon shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. In the event an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial and such denial shall not prejudice further applications by the applicant. In the event an application is approved, the department shall immediately conduct an operation inspection of the proposed apprentice salon. A salon passing the inspection shall be issued a license to operate and may begin training apprentices upon receipt of notification to such effect. A salon failing the operation inspection shall submit, within fifteen days, evidence of corrective action to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If, after a second inspection to be conducted within thirty days of receipt of evidence, the salon does not receive a satisfactory rating, or if evidence is not submitted within fifteen days, the application may be denied.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 114;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,153; Laws 2007, LB463, § 377.    


38-10,116. Licensed apprentice salon; operating requirements.

In order to maintain and renew its license in good standing, each apprentice salon shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The apprentice salon shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(2) The salon shall maintain its salon license in good standing; and

(3) The salon shall operate in accordance with all operating requirements and all student requirements of a school of cosmetology or school of esthetics, except that the department, with the recommendation of the board, may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to modify or waive any such requirements that are deemed not applicable to an apprentice salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 115;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 44;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,154; Laws 2007, LB463, § 378.    


38-10,117. Apprentice salon license; revocation or expiration; effect.

The license of an apprentice salon that has been revoked or expired for any reason may not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such apprentice salon may accept apprentices for training.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 117;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,156; Laws 2007, LB463, § 379.    


38-10,118. Apprentice salon license; change of ownership or location; effect.

Each apprentice salon license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such apprentice salon may accept apprentices for training.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 118;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,157; Laws 2007, LB463, § 380.    


38-10,119. Apprentice salon; owner liability.

The owner of each apprentice salon shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the apprentice salon is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the apprentice salon.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 119;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,158; Laws 2007, LB463, § 381.    


38-10,120. Home services permit; issuance.

(1) A licensed cosmetology salon or esthetics salon may employ licensed cosmetologists and estheticians, according to the licensed activities of the salon, to perform home services by meeting the following requirements:

(a) In order to be issued a home services permit by the department, an applicant shall hold a current active salon license; and

(b) Any person seeking a home services permit shall submit a complete application at least ten days before the proposed date for beginning home services. Along with the application the applicant shall submit evidence of liability insurance or bonding.

(2) The department shall issue a home services permit to each applicant meeting the requirements set forth in this section.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 120;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 47;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 46;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,159; Laws 2007, LB463, § 382;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 36.    


38-10,121. Home services permit; requirements.

In order to maintain in good standing or renew its home services permit, a salon shall at all times operate in accordance with all requirements for operation, maintain its license in good standing, and comply with the following requirements:

(1)(a) Clients receiving home services shall be in emergency or persistent circumstances which shall generally be defined as any condition sufficiently immobilizing to prevent the client from leaving his or her residence regularly to conduct routine affairs of daily living such as grocery shopping, visiting friends and relatives, attending social events, attending worship services, and other similar activities.

(b) Emergency or persistent circumstances may include such conditions or situations as:

(i) Chronic illness or injury leaving the client bedridden or with severely restricted mobility;

(ii) Extreme general infirmity such as that associated with the aging process;

(iii) Temporary conditions including, but not limited to, immobilizing injury and recuperation from serious illness or surgery;

(iv) Having sole responsibility for the care of an invalid dependent or a mentally disabled person requiring constant attention;

(v) Mental disability that significantly limits the client in areas of functioning described in subdivision (1)(a) of this section; or

(vi) Any other conditions that, in the opinion of the department, meet the general definition of emergency or persistent circumstances;

(2) The salon shall determine that each person receiving home services meets the requirements of subdivision (1) of this section and shall:

(a) Complete a client information form supplied by the department before home services may be provided to any client; and

(b) Keep on file the client information forms of all clients it is currently providing with home services or to whom it has provided such services within the past two years;

(3) The salon shall employ or contract with persons licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to provide home services and shall not permit any person to perform any home services under its authority for which he or she is not licensed;

(4) No client shall be left unattended while any chemical service is in progress or while any electrical appliance is in use; and

(5) Each salon providing home services shall post a daily itinerary for each licensee providing home services. The kit for each licensee shall be available for inspection at the salon or at the home of the client receiving services.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 121;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 48;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,160; Laws 2007, LB463, § 383;    Laws 2020, LB755, § 1.    


38-10,122. Home services; inspections.

Agents of the department may make operation inspections in the homes of clients if such inspections are limited to the activities, procedures, and materials of the licensee providing home services.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 122;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,161; Laws 2007, LB463, § 384.    


38-10,123. Home services; requirements.

No licensee may perform home services except when employed by or under contract to a salon holding a valid home services permit.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 123;    Laws 1987, LB 543, § 23;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 49;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,162; Laws 2007, LB463, § 385.    


38-10,124. Home services permit; renewal; revocation or expiration; effect.

Each home services permit shall be subject to renewal at the same time as the salon license and shall be renewed upon request of the permitholder if the salon is operating its home services in compliance with the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and if the salon license is renewed. No permit that has been revoked or expired may be reinstated or transferred to another owner or location.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 124;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 50;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,163; Laws 2007, LB463, § 386.    


38-10,125. Home services permit; owner; liability.

The owner of each salon holding a home services permit shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the home services are provided in compliance with all applicable laws and rules and regulations and shall be liable for any violations which occur.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 125;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 51;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,164; Laws 2007, LB463, § 387.    


38-10,125.01. Mobile cosmetology salon; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a mobile cosmetology salon by the department, an applicant shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) The proposed salon is a self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed mobile unit;

(2)(a)(i) The mobile unit has a global positioning system tracking device that enables the department to track the location of the salon over the Internet;

(ii) The device is on board the mobile unit and functioning at all times the salon is in operation or open for business; and

(iii) The owner of the salon provides the department with all information necessary to track the salon over the Internet; or

(b) The owner of the salon submits to the department, in a manner specified by the department, a weekly itinerary showing the dates, exact locations, and times that cosmetology services are scheduled to be provided. The owner shall submit the itinerary not less than seven calendar days prior to the beginning of the service described in the itinerary and shall submit to the department any changes in the itinerary not less than twenty-four hours prior to the change. A salon shall follow the itinerary in providing service and notify the department of any changes;

(3) The salon has insurance coverage which meets the requirements of the department for the mobile unit;

(4) The salon is clearly identified as such to the public by a sign;

(5) The salon complies with the sanitary requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(6) The entrance into the proposed salon used by the general public provides safe access by the public;

(7) The proposed salon has at least one hundred fifty square feet of floor space. If more than one practitioner is to be employed in the salon at the same time, the salon shall contain an additional space of at least fifty square feet for each additional practitioner; and

(8) The proposed salon includes a functional sink and toilet facilities and maintains an adequate supply of clean water and wastewater storage capacity.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 37.    


38-10,125.02. Mobile cosmetology salon license; application.

Any person seeking a license to operate a mobile cosmetology salon shall submit a completed application to the department, and along with the application, the applicant shall submit a detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed salon sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of section 38-10,125.01.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 38.    


38-10,125.03. Mobile cosmetology salon; application; review; denial; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a mobile cosmetology salon shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. If an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial, and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. If an application is approved, the department shall issue the applicant a certificate of consideration to operate a mobile cosmetology salon pending an operation inspection. The department shall conduct an operation inspection of each salon issued a certificate of consideration within six months after the issuance of such certificate. A salon which passes the inspection shall be issued a permanent license. A salon which fails the inspection shall submit within fifteen days evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If evidence is not submitted within fifteen days or if after a second inspection the salon does not receive a satisfactory rating, it shall immediately relinquish its certificate of consideration and cease operation.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 39.    


38-10,125.04. Mobile cosmetology salon; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each mobile cosmetology salon shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The salon shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(2) The salon owner or his or her agent shall notify the department of any change of ownership, name, or office address and if a salon is permanently closed;

(3) No salon shall permit any unlicensed person to perform any of the practices of cosmetology within its confines or employment;

(4) The salon shall display a name upon, over, or near the entrance door distinguishing it as a salon;

(5) The salon shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the salon, without prior notice, and the owner and manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the salon, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(6) The salon shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license or certificate of consideration to operate a salon;

(b) The current licenses of all persons licensed under the act who are employed by or working in the salon; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent operation inspection;

(7) At no time shall a salon employ more employees than permitted by the square footage requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(8) No cosmetology services may be performed in a salon while the salon is moving. The salon must be safely and legally parked in a legal parking space at all times while clients are present inside the salon. A salon shall not park or conduct business within three hundred feet of another licensed cosmetology establishment. The department is not responsible for monitoring for enforcement of this subdivision but may discipline a license for a reported and verified violation;

(9) The owner of the salon shall maintain a permanent business address at which correspondence from the department may be received and records of appointments, license numbers, and vehicle identification numbers shall be kept for each salon being operated by the owner. The owner shall make such records available for verification and inspection by the department; and

(10) The salon shall not knowingly permit its employees or clients to use, consume, serve, or in any manner possess or distribute intoxicating beverages or controlled substances upon its premises.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 40.    


38-10,125.05. Mobile cosmetology salon license; renewal.

The procedure for renewing a mobile cosmetology salon license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the salon shall submit evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage for the salon and evidence of coverage which meets the requirements of the Motor Vehicle Registration Act for the salon.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 41.    


Cross References

38-10,125.06. Mobile cosmetology salon license; revocation or expiration; effect.

The license of a mobile cosmetology salon that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 42.    


38-10,125.07. Mobile cosmetology salon license; change of ownership or mobile unit; effect.

Each mobile cosmetology salon license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and the mobile unit named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or mobile unit. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 43.    


38-10,125.08. Mobile cosmetology salon; owner liability.

The owner of each mobile cosmetology salon shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the salon is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the salon.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 44.    


38-10,126. Nail technology activities; licensure required.

Licensure shall be required before any person may engage in the full, unsupervised practice of nail technology. No person may assume the title of nail technician or nail technology instructor without first being licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. No person, group, company, or other entity shall operate, advertise, or hold himself, herself, or itself out as operating a nail technology establishment in which any of the practices of nail technology are carried out unless such nail technology establishment is licensed under the act. No person shall provide nail technology services unless he or she practices in a currently licensed cosmetology establishment or nail technology establishment.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 28;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,180; Laws 2007, LB463, § 388.    


38-10,127. Nail technology activities; enumerated.

No person, group, company, limited liability company, or other entity shall engage in any of the following acts without being licensed as required by the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act, unless specifically excepted by the act:

(1) Performing or advertising or holding oneself out as performing or qualified to perform any of the practices of nail technology;

(2) Teaching or advertising or holding oneself out as teaching or qualified to teach any of the practices of nail technology; or

(3) Operating or advertising or holding oneself out as operating an establishment in which any of the practices of nail technology are performed or taught.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 29;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,181; Laws 2007, LB463, § 389.    


38-10,128. Nail technician or instructor; licensure by examination; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a nail technician or nail technology instructor by examination, an individual shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) He or she has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the beginning date of the examination for which application is being made;

(2) He or she has completed formal education equivalent to a United States high school education;

(3) He or she possesses sufficient ability to read the English language to permit the applicant to practice in a safe manner, as evidenced by successful completion of the written examination; and

(4) He or she has graduated from a school of cosmetology or nail technology school providing a nail technology program. Evidence of graduation shall include documentation of the total number of hours of training earned and a diploma or certificate from the school to the effect that the applicant has complied with the following:

(a) For licensure as a nail technician, the program of studies shall consist of three hundred hours; and

(b) For licensure as a nail technology instructor, the program of studies shall consist of three hundred hours beyond the program of studies required for licensure as a nail technician and the individual shall be currently licensed as a nail technician in Nebraska as evidenced by possession of a valid Nebraska nail technician license.

The department shall grant a license in the appropriate category to any person meeting the requirements specified in this section.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 31;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,183; Laws 2007, LB463, § 390;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 45.    


Cross References

38-10,129. Application for nail technology licensure; procedure.

No application for any type of licensure shall be considered complete unless all information requested on the application form has been supplied, all seals and signatures required have been obtained, and all supporting and documentary evidence has been received by the department.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 32;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 91;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,184; Laws 2007, LB463, § 391;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 46.    


38-10,130. Licensure; examinations; duties; examinees.

The board shall approve and the department shall cause examinations to be administered as required for licensure in nail technology under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act for the purpose of establishing the possession of minimum competency in the knowledge and skills required on the part of the applicant.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 34;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,186; Laws 2007, LB463, § 392.    


38-10,131. Examinations; requirements; grades.

(1) Examinations approved by the board may be national standardized examinations, but in all cases the examinations shall be related to the knowledge and skills necessary to perform the practices being examined and shall be related to the curricula required to be taught in nail technology programs.

(2) In order to successfully complete the examination, an applicant shall obtain an average grade of seventy-five percent on the written examination.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 35;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,187; Laws 2007, LB463, § 393;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 47.    


38-10,132. Nail technician or instructor; reciprocity; requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) The department may grant a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction to a nail technician or nail technology instructor who presents proof of the following:

(a) He or she has attained the age of seventeen years;

(b) He or she has completed formal education equivalent to a United States high school education;

(c) He or she is currently licensed as a nail technician or its equivalent or as a nail technology instructor or its equivalent in another jurisdiction and he or she has never been disciplined or had his or her license revoked;

(d) For licensure as a nail technician, evidence of completion of a program of nail technician studies consisting of three hundred hours and successful passage of a written examination. If a written examination was not required for licensure in another jurisdiction, the applicant must take the Nebraska written examination. Each month of full-time practice as a nail technician within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as equivalent to one hundred hours toward a nail technician license; and

(e) For licensure as a nail technology instructor, evidence of completion of a program of studies consisting of three hundred hours beyond the program of studies required for licensure in another jurisdiction as a nail technician, successful passage of a written examination, and current licensure as a nail technician in Nebraska as evidenced by possessing a valid Nebraska nail technician license. If a written examination was not required for licensure as a nail technology instructor, the applicant must take the Nebraska written examination. Each month of full-time practice as a nail technology instructor within the five years immediately preceding application shall be valued as equivalent to one hundred hours toward a nail technology instructor license.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 39;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,191; Laws 2007, LB463, § 394;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 46;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 48.    


38-10,133. Nail technology license; display.

Every person holding a license in nail technology issued by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act shall display it in a conspicuous place in his or her principal place of employment, and every nail technology establishment shall so display the then current licenses of all practitioners there employed.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 40;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,192; Laws 2007, LB463, § 395;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 49.    


38-10,134. Nail technology temporary practitioner; licensure required.

Licensure shall be required before any person may act as a nail technology temporary practitioner, and no person shall assume such title without first being licensed by the department under section 38-10,135.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 41;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,193; Laws 2007, LB463, § 396.    


38-10,135. Nail technology temporary practitioner; application; qualifications.

An applicant for licensure as a nail technology temporary practitioner shall show evidence that his or her completed application for regular licensure has been accepted by the department, that he or she has not failed any portion of the licensure examination, and that he or she has been accepted for work in a licensed nail technology or cosmetology establishment under the supervision of a licensed nail technician or licensed cosmetologist.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 42;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,194; Laws 2007, LB463, § 397;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 50.    


38-10,136. Nail technology temporary practitioner; expiration of license; extension.

A license as a nail technology temporary practitioner shall be granted for a set period of time and cannot be renewed. The license shall expire eight weeks following the date of issuance or upon receipt of examination results, whichever occurs first. The license of a temporary practitioner who fails to take the first scheduled examination shall expire immediately unless the department finds that the temporary practitioner was unable to attend the examination due to an emergency or other valid circumstances. If the department so finds, it may extend the license for an additional eight weeks or until receipt of the examination results, whichever occurs first. No license may be extended in such manner more than once for each temporary practitioner.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 43;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,195; Laws 2007, LB463, § 398.    


38-10,137. Continuing competency; limited exemption.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may waive continuing competency requirements, in part or in total, for any two-year licensing period when a licensee submits documentation that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented completion of such requirements as provided in section 38-146. In addition to circumstances determined by the department to be beyond the licensee's control pursuant to such section, a nail technology instructor who meets the continuing competency requirements for the nail technology instructor's license shall be exempt from meeting the continuing competency requirements for his or her nail technician license for that biennium.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 55;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 53;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,206; Laws 2007, LB463, § 399.    


38-10,138. Nail technology establishment; license required.

No person shall operate or profess or attempt to operate a nail technology establishment unless such establishment is licensed by the department under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. The department shall not issue or renew a license for a nail technology establishment until all requirements of the act have been complied with. No person shall engage in any of the practices of nail technology in any location or premises other than a licensed nail technology or cosmetology establishment except as specifically permitted in the act.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 57;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,208; Laws 2007, LB463, § 400.    


38-10,139. Nail technology salon; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a nail technology salon by the department, an applicant shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) The proposed nail technology salon shall be a fixed, permanent structure or part of one;

(2) The proposed nail technology salon shall be physically separated from all other business or residential activities except cosmetology, barbering, manicuring, pedicuring, and retail sales;

(3) The separation required in subdivision (2) of this section shall be by fixed walls or by partitions not less than six feet high;

(4) All areas of the nail technology salon, including those used for manicuring, pedicuring, or retail sales, shall comply with the sanitary requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(5) A nail technology salon located in a residence shall be entirely distinct and separate from any living quarters, except that there may be one connecting door to the living portion of the dwelling as an access entrance to the salon for the owner or operator, but such entrance shall not be for the use of the general public;

(6) The entrance into the proposed nail technology salon used by the general public shall lead directly from the outside to the salon, except that a salon located in a commercial building may have its entrance open from a public area such as a foyer, hallway, mall, concourse, or retail sales floor. The requirements of this subdivision do not apply to nail salons located within licensed cosmetology salons;

(7) The proposed nail technology salon shall have at least one hundred fifty square feet of floor space. If more than one practitioner is to be employed in the salon at the same time, the salon shall contain an additional space of at least fifty square feet for each additional practitioner, except that a salon employing a licensee exclusively to perform home services need not provide additional space for such employee;

(8) The proposed nail technology salon shall include toilet facilities unless the salon is located in a commercial building in which public toilet facilities are available that open directly off of a public area;

(9) The proposed nail technology salon shall have handwashing facilities within the salon; and

(10) The proposed nail technology salon shall meet all state or local building code and fire code requirements.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 59;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,210; Laws 2007, LB463, § 401.    


38-10,140. Nail technology salon; license application.

Any person seeking a license to operate a nail technology salon shall submit a completed application at least thirty days before construction or remodeling of the building proposed for use is scheduled to begin. If no construction or remodeling is planned, the application shall be submitted at least thirty days before the proposed opening of the salon for operation. Along with the application the applicant shall submit:

(1) A detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed salon sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of section 38-10,139; and

(2) Evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage for the proposed salon.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 60;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,211; Laws 2007, LB463, § 402.    


38-10,141. Nail technology salon; application; review; certificate of consideration; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a nail technology salon shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. If an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. If an application is approved, the department shall issue the applicant a certificate of consideration to operate a salon pending an operation inspection. The department shall conduct an operation inspection of each salon issued a certificate of consideration within six months after the issuance of such certificate. Salons passing the inspection shall be issued a permanent license. Salons failing the inspection shall submit within fifteen days evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If evidence is not submitted within fifteen days or if after a second inspection the salon does not receive a satisfactory rating, it shall immediately relinquish its certificate of consideration and cease operation.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 61;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,212; Laws 2007, LB463, § 403.    


38-10,142. Nail technology salon; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each nail technology salon shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The nail technology salon shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(2) The nail technology salon owner or his or her agent shall notify the department at least thirty days prior to any change of ownership, name, or address, and at least one week prior to closure, except in emergency circumstances as determined by the department;

(3) No nail technology salon shall permit any unlicensed person to perform any of the practices of nail technology within its confines or employment;

(4) The nail technology salon shall display a name upon, over, or near the entrance door distinguishing it as a nail technology salon;

(5) The nail technology salon shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the nail technology salon, without prior notice, and the owner and manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the nail technology salon, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(6) The nail technology salon shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license or certificate of consideration to operate a nail technology salon;

(b) The current licenses of all persons licensed under the act who are employed by or working in the nail technology salon; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent operation inspection;

(7) At no time shall a nail technology salon employ more employees than permitted by the square footage requirements of the act; and

(8) The nail technology salon shall not knowingly permit its employees to use or consume intoxicating beverages upon its premises.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 62;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,213; Laws 2007, LB463, § 404;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 51.    


38-10,143. Nail technology salon license; renewal; insurance.

The procedure for renewing a nail technology salon license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the salon shall submit evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 63;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 94;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,214; Laws 2007, LB463, § 405.    


38-10,144. Nail technology salon license; revoked or expired; effect.

A nail technology salon license that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 64;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,215; Laws 2007, LB463, § 406.    


38-10,145. Nail technology salon license; change of ownership or location; effect.

Each nail technology salon license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named on the license and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 65;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,216; Laws 2007, LB463, § 407.    


38-10,146. Nail technology salon owner; responsibilities.

The owner of each nail technology salon shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the salon is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the salon.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 66;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,217; Laws 2007, LB463, § 408.    


38-10,147. Nail technology school; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a nail technology school by the department, an applicant shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) The proposed school shall be a fixed, permanent structure or part of one;

(2) The proposed school shall have a contracted enrollment of students;

(3) The proposed school shall contain at least five hundred square feet of floor space and facilities, staff, apparatus, and equipment appropriate to its projected enrollment in accordance with the standards established by rule and regulation; and

(4) The proposed school shall not have the same entrance as or direct access to a cosmetology salon or nail technology salon.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 67;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,218; Laws 2007, LB463, § 409;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 52.    


38-10,148. School of cosmetology; exempt.

A licensed school of cosmetology is not required to be licensed as a nail technology school in order to provide a nail technology program.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 68;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,219; Laws 2007, LB463, § 410.    


38-10,149. Nail technology school; license; application.

Any person seeking a license to operate a nail technology school shall submit a completed application at least thirty days before construction or remodeling of the building proposed for use is scheduled to begin. If no construction or remodeling is planned, the application shall be received at least thirty days before the proposed opening of the school.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 69;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,220; Laws 2007, LB463, § 411.    


38-10,150. Nail technology school; license; application; requirements.

Along with the application, an applicant for a license to operate a nail technology school shall submit:

(1) A detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed school building sufficient to show compliance with the relevant rules and regulations;

(2) Evidence of minimal property damage, personal injury, and liability insurance coverage for the proposed school;

(3) A copy of the curriculum to be taught for all courses;

(4) A copy of the school catalog, handbook, or policies and the student contract; and

(5) A list of the names and credentials of all persons licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to be employed by the school.

A nail technology school's license shall be valid only for the location named in the application. When a school desires to change locations, it shall comply with section 38-10,158.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 70;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 95;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,221; Laws 2007, LB463, § 412;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 53.    


38-10,151. Nail technology school; application; review; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a nail technology school shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. If an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. If an application is accepted, the department shall immediately conduct an accreditation inspection of the proposed school. A school passing the inspection shall be issued a license and may begin operation as soon as the inspection results are received. If the proposed school fails the inspection, the applicant shall submit, within fifteen days, evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If, after a second inspection to be conducted within thirty days after receipt of evidence, the school does not receive a satisfactory rating, or if evidence is not received within fifteen days, the application may be denied.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 71;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,222; Laws 2007, LB463, § 413.    


38-10,152. Nail technology school; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each nail technology school shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The school shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act;

(2) The school owner or owners or their authorized agent shall notify the department at least thirty days prior to any change of ownership, name, or address, and at least sixty days prior to closure, except in emergency circumstances as determined by the department;

(3) No school shall permit anyone other than a nail technology student, nail technology student instructor, or nail technology instructor to perform any of the practices of nail technology within its confines or employment, except that such restriction shall not prevent a school from inviting guest educators who are not licensed to provide education to students or student instructors if the guest educator does not perform any of the practices of nail technology;

(4) The school shall display a name upon or near the entrance door designating it as a nail technology school;

(5) The school shall display in a conspicuous place within the clinic area a sign reading: All services in this school are performed by students who are training in nail technology. A notice to such effect shall also appear in all advertising conducted by the school for its clinic services;

(6) The school shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the school without prior notice, and the owner or manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the school, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(7) The school shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license to operate a nail technology school;

(b) The current licenses of all persons licensed under the act, except students, employed by or working in the school; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent accreditation inspection;

(8) At no time shall a school enroll more students than permitted by the act or the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(9) The school shall not knowingly permit its students, employees, or clients to use, consume, serve, or in any other manner possess or distribute intoxicating beverages or controlled substances upon its premises;

(10) No nail technology instructor or nail technology student instructor shall perform, and no school shall permit such person to perform, any of the practices of nail technology on the public in a nail technology school other than that part of the practical work which pertains directly to the teaching of practical subjects to nail technology students or nail technology student instructors, and complete nail technology services shall not be provided for a client unless done in a demonstration class of theoretical or practical studies;

(11) The school shall maintain space, staff, library, teaching apparatus, and equipment as established by rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(12) The school shall keep a daily record of the attendance and clinical performance of each student and student instructor;

(13) The school shall maintain regular class and instructor hours and shall require the minimum curriculum;

(14) The school shall establish and maintain criteria and standards for student grading, evaluation, and performance and shall award a certificate or diploma to a student only upon completing a full course of study in compliance with such standards, except that no student shall receive such certificate or diploma until he or she has satisfied or made an agreement with the school to satisfy all outstanding financial obligations to the school;

(15) The school shall maintain on file the enrollment of each student; and

(16) The school shall print and provide to each student a copy of the school rules, which shall not be inconsistent with the act or with the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under such act and which shall include policies of the school with respect to tuition, reimbursement, conduct, attendance, grading, earning of hours and credits, demerits, penalties, dismissal, graduation requirements, dress, and other information sufficient to advise the student of the standards he or she will be required to maintain. The department may review any school's rules to determine their consistency with the intent and content of the act and the rules and regulations and may overturn any school rules found not to be in accord.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 72;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,223; Laws 2007, LB463, § 414;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 54.    


38-10,153. Nail technology school; students; requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each nail technology school shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) Every person accepted for enrollment as a standard student shall meet the following qualifications:

(a) He or she has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the date of his or her enrollment in a nail technology school;

(b) He or she has completed the equivalent of a high school education; and

(c) He or she has not undertaken any training in nail technology in this state after January 1, 2000, without being enrolled as a nail technology student;

(2)(a) Every person accepted for enrollment as a special study nail technology student shall meet the following requirements:

(i) He or she has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the date of enrollment in a nail technology school;

(ii) He or she has completed the tenth grade; and

(iii) He or she is actively continuing his or her formal high school education on a full-time basis as determined by the department.

(b) Special study nail technology students shall be limited to attending a nail technology school for no more than eight hours per week during the school year;

(3) No nail technology school shall accept an individual for enrollment who does not provide evidence of meeting the age and education requirements;

(4) Every person accepted for enrollment as a nail technology student instructor shall show evidence of current licensure as a nail technician in Nebraska and completion of formal education equivalent to a United States high school education;

(5) The school shall, at all times the school is in operation, have at least one nail technology instructor in the school for each twenty students or fraction thereof enrolled in the school;

(6) The school shall not permit any nail technology student to render clinical services on members of the public with or without fees until such student has satisfactorily completed the beginning curriculum, except that the department may establish guidelines by which it may approve such practices as part of the beginning curriculum;

(7) No school shall pay direct compensation to any of its nail technology students. Nail technology student instructors may be paid as determined by the school;

(8) All nail technology students and nail technology student instructors shall be under the supervision of a cosmetology instructor, nail technology instructor, or nail technology student instructor at all times when nail technology services are being taught or performed;

(9) No student shall be permitted by the school to train or work in a school in any manner for more than ten hours a day; and

(10) The school shall not credit a nail technology student or nail technology student instructor with hours except when such hours were earned in the study or practice of nail technology in accordance with the required curriculum. Hours shall be credited on a daily basis. Once credited, hours cannot be removed or disallowed except by the department upon a finding that the hours have been wrongfully allowed.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 73;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 17;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,224; Laws 2007, LB463, § 415;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 55.    


38-10,154. Nail technology school; transfer of students.

Nail technology students or nail technology student instructors may transfer from one nail technology school to another school at any time.

The school to which the student is transferring shall be entitled to receive from the student's previous school, upon request, any and all records pertaining to the student after all financial obligations of the student to the previous school are met.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 74;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,225; Laws 2007, LB463, § 416;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 56.    


38-10,155. Repealed. Laws 2018, LB731, § 106.

38-10,156. Nail technology school; student instructor limit.

No nail technology school shall at any time enroll more than two nail technology student instructors for each full-time nail technology instructor or cosmetology instructor actively working in and employed by the school.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 76;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,227; Laws 2007, LB463, § 418;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 57.    


38-10,157. Nail technology school license; renewal; inactive status.

The procedure for renewing a school license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the nail technology school shall receive a satisfactory rating on an accreditation inspection conducted by the department within the six months immediately prior to the date of license renewal.

Any nail technology school not able to meet the requirements for license renewal shall have its license placed on inactive status until all deficiencies have been corrected, and the school shall not operate in any manner during the time its license is inactive. If the deficiencies are not corrected within six months after the date of license renewal, the license may be revoked unless the department approves an extension of the time limit. The license of a school that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such school may reopen.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 77;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 96;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,228; Laws 2007, LB463, § 419.    


38-10,158. Nail technology school; change of ownership or location; effect.

Each nail technology school license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and premises named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or change in the county of location. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such school may reopen, except that a school moving to a new location within the same county may do so by filing an application as required by the department, paying the required fee, submitting a new floor plan, and passing an operation inspection. Materials shall be received by the department no less than thirty days prior to the move, and all provisions of this section shall be complied with before the school may begin operation at its new location.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 78;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,229; Laws 2007, LB463, § 420.    


38-10,158.01. Mobile nail technology salon; license; requirements.

In order to be licensed as a mobile nail technology salon by the department, an applicant shall meet, and present to the department evidence of meeting, the following requirements:

(1) The proposed salon is a self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed mobile unit;

(2)(a)(i) The mobile unit has a global positioning system tracking device that enables the department to track the location of the salon over the Internet;

(ii) The device is on board the mobile unit and functioning at all times the salon is in operation or open for business; and

(iii) The owner of the salon provides the department with all information necessary to track the salon over the Internet; or

(b) The owner of the salon submits to the department, in a manner specified by the department, a weekly itinerary showing the dates, exact locations, and times that nail technology services are scheduled to be provided. The owner shall submit the itinerary not less than seven calendar days prior to the beginning of the service described in the itinerary and shall submit to the department any changes in the itinerary not less than twenty-four hours prior to the change. A salon shall follow the itinerary in providing service and notify the department of any changes;

(3) The salon has insurance coverage which meets the requirements of the department for the mobile unit;

(4) The salon is clearly identified as such to the public by a sign;

(5) The salon complies with the sanitary requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(6) The entrance into the proposed salon used by the general public provides safe access by the public;

(7) The proposed salon has at least one hundred fifty square feet of floor space. If more than one practitioner is to be employed in the salon at the same time, the salon shall contain an additional space of at least fifty square feet for each additional practitioner; and

(8) The proposed salon includes a functional sink and toilet facilities and maintains an adequate supply of clean water and wastewater storage capacity.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 58.    


38-10,158.02. Mobile nail technology salon license; application.

Any person seeking a license to operate a mobile nail technology salon shall submit a completed application to the department, and along with the application, the applicant shall submit a detailed floor plan or blueprint of the proposed salon sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of section 38-10,158.01.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 59.    


38-10,158.03. Mobile nail technology salon; application; review; denial; inspection.

Each application for a license to operate a mobile nail technology salon shall be reviewed by the department for compliance with the requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. If an application is denied, the applicant shall be informed in writing of the grounds for denial, and such denial shall not prejudice future applications by the applicant. If an application is approved, the department shall issue the applicant a certificate of consideration to operate a mobile nail technology salon pending an operation inspection. The department shall conduct an operation inspection of each salon issued a certificate of consideration within six months after the issuance of such certificate. A salon which passes the inspection shall be issued a permanent license. A salon which fails the inspection shall submit within fifteen days evidence of corrective action taken to improve those aspects of operation found deficient. If evidence is not submitted within fifteen days or if after a second inspection the salon does not receive a satisfactory rating, it shall immediately relinquish its certificate of consideration and cease operation.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 60.    


38-10,158.04. Mobile nail technology salon; operating requirements.

In order to maintain its license in good standing, each mobile nail technology salon shall operate in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) The salon shall at all times comply with all applicable provisions of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and all rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the act;

(2) The salon owner or his or her agent shall notify the department of any change of ownership, name, or office address and if a salon is permanently closed;

(3) No salon shall permit any unlicensed person to perform any of the practices of nail technology within its confines or employment;

(4) The salon shall display a name upon, over, or near the entrance door distinguishing it as a salon;

(5) The salon shall permit any duly authorized agent of the department to conduct an operation inspection or investigation at any time during the normal operating hours of the salon, without prior notice, and the owner and manager shall assist the inspector by providing access to all areas of the salon, all personnel, and all records requested by the inspector;

(6) The salon shall display in a conspicuous place the following records:

(a) The current license or certificate of consideration to operate a salon;

(b) The current licenses of all persons licensed under the act who are employed by or working in the salon; and

(c) The rating sheet from the most recent operation inspection;

(7) At no time shall a salon employ more employees than permitted by the square footage requirements of the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act;

(8) No nail technology services may be performed in a salon while the salon is moving. The salon must be safely and legally parked in a legal parking space at all times while clients are present inside the salon. A salon shall not park or conduct business within three hundred feet of another licensed nail technology establishment. The department is not responsible for monitoring for enforcement of this subdivision but may discipline a license for a reported and verified violation;

(9) The owner of the salon shall maintain a permanent business address at which correspondence from the department may be received and records of appointments, license numbers, and vehicle identification numbers shall be kept for each salon being operated by the owner. The owner shall make such records available for verification and inspection by the department; and

(10) The salon shall not knowingly permit its employees or clients to use, consume, serve, or in any manner possess or distribute intoxicating beverages or controlled substances upon its premises.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 61.    


38-10,158.05. Mobile nail technology salon license; renewal.

The procedure for renewing a mobile nail technology salon license shall be in accordance with section 38-143, except that in addition to all other requirements, the salon shall submit evidence of minimal property damage, bodily injury, and liability insurance coverage for the salon and evidence of coverage which meets the requirements of the Motor Vehicle Registration Act for the salon.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 62.    


Cross References

38-10,158.06. Mobile nail technology salon license; revocation or expiration; effect.

The license of a mobile nail technology salon that has been revoked or expired for any reason shall not be reinstated. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 63.    


38-10,158.07. Mobile nail technology salon license; change of ownership or mobile unit; effect.

Each mobile nail technology salon license issued shall be in effect solely for the owner or owners and the mobile unit named thereon and shall expire automatically upon any change of ownership or mobile unit. An original application for licensure shall be submitted and approved before such salon may reopen for business.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 64.    


38-10,158.08. Mobile nail technology salon; owner liability.

The owner of each mobile nail technology salon shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the salon is operated in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations and shall be liable for any and all violations occurring in the salon.

Source:Laws 2018, LB731, § 65.    


38-10,159. Nail technology home services permit.

A licensed nail technology salon may employ licensed nail technicians to perform nail technology home services by meeting the following requirements:

(1) In order to be issued a nail technology home services permit by the department, an applicant shall hold a current active cosmetology salon license or nail technology salon license; and

(2) Any person seeking a nail technology home services permit shall submit a complete application at least ten days before the proposed date for beginning home services. Along with the application the applicant shall submit evidence of application for liability insurance or bonding.

The department shall issue a nail technology home services permit to each applicant meeting the requirements set forth in this section.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 79;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,230; Laws 2007, LB463, § 421.    


38-10,160. Nail technology home services permit; salon operating requirements.

In order to maintain in good standing or renew its nail technology home services permit, a nail technology salon shall at all times operate in accordance with all requirements for operation, maintain its license in good standing, and comply with the following requirements:

(1)(a) Clients receiving nail technology home services shall be in emergency or persistent circumstances which shall generally be defined as any condition sufficiently immobilizing to prevent the client from leaving his or her residence regularly to conduct routine affairs of daily living such as grocery shopping, visiting friends and relatives, attending social events, attending worship services, and other similar activities.

(b) Emergency or persistent circumstances may include such conditions or situations as:

(i) Chronic illness or injury leaving the client bedridden or with severely restricted mobility;

(ii) Extreme general infirmity such as that associated with the aging process;

(iii) Temporary conditions including, but not limited to, immobilizing injury and recuperation from serious illness or surgery;

(iv) Having sole responsibility for the care of an invalid dependent or a mentally disabled person requiring constant attention;

(v) Mental disability that significantly limits the client in areas of functioning described in subdivision (1)(a) of this section; or

(vi) Any other conditions that, in the opinion of the department, meet the general definition of emergency or persistent circumstances;

(2) The nail technology salon shall determine that each person receiving nail technology home services meets the requirements of subdivision (1) of this section and shall:

(a) Complete a client information form supplied by the department before nail technology home services may be provided to any client; and

(b) Keep on file the client information forms of all clients it is currently providing with nail technology home services or to whom it has provided such services within the past two years;

(3) The nail technology salon shall employ or contract with persons licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act to provide nail technology home services and shall not permit any person to perform any home services under its authority for which he or she is not licensed;

(4) No client shall be left unattended while any chemical service is in progress or while any electrical appliance is in use; and

(5) Each nail technology salon providing nail technology home services shall post a daily itinerary for each licensee providing home services. The kit for each licensee shall be available for inspection at the salon or at the home of the client receiving services.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 80;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,231; Laws 2007, LB463, § 422;    Laws 2020, LB755, § 2.    


38-10,161. Nail technology home services; inspections.

Agents of the department may make operation inspections in the homes of clients if such inspections are limited to the activities, procedures, and materials of the licensee providing nail technology home services.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 81;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,232; Laws 2007, LB463, § 423.    


38-10,162. Nail technology home services; performed by licensee.

No licensee may perform nail technology home services except when employed by or under contract to a nail technology salon holding a valid nail technology home services permit.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 82;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,233; Laws 2007, LB463, § 424.    


38-10,163. Nail technology home services permit; renewal.

Each nail technology home services permit shall be subject to renewal at the same time as the nail technology salon license and shall be renewed upon request of the permitholder if the salon is operating its nail technology home services in compliance with the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act and if the salon license is renewed. No permit that has been revoked or expired may be reinstated or transferred to another owner or location.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 83;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,234; Laws 2007, LB463, § 425.    


38-10,164. Nail technology home services permit; owner; responsibility.

The owner of each salon holding a nail technology home services permit shall have full responsibility for ensuring that the nail technology home services are provided in compliance with all applicable laws and rules and regulations and shall be liable for any violations which occur.

Source:Laws 1999, LB 68, § 84;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3,235; Laws 2007, LB463, § 426.    


38-10,165. Body art; consent required; when; violation; penalty.

No person shall perform body art on or to any person under eighteen years of age without the prior written consent of the parent or court-appointed guardian of such person. The person giving such consent must be present during the procedure. A copy of such consent shall be retained for a period of five years by the person performing such body art. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require the performance of body art on a person under eighteen years of age. Violation of this section is a Class III misdemeanor.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 34;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,236; Laws 2007, LB463, § 427.    


38-10,166. Body art; act, how construed.

Nothing in the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act shall be construed to authorize a person performing body art to engage in the practice of medicine and surgery.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 35;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,237; Laws 2007, LB463, § 428.    


38-10,167. Ordinances governing body art; authorized.

The licensure of persons performing body art or operating a body art facility under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act shall not be construed to restrict or prohibit a governing body of a county, city, or village from providing further requirements for performing body art or operating a body art facility within its jurisdiction under ordinances at least as stringent as, or more stringent than, the regulations of the act.

Source:Laws 2004, LB 906, § 36;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,238; Laws 2007, LB463, § 429.    


38-10,168. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 430.    


38-10,169. Department; conduct inspections; types; rules and regulations; manner conducted.

(1) The department shall conduct inspections as required by the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act. Two types of inspections shall be conducted which shall be known as operation inspections and accreditation inspections. An operation inspection shall be conducted to ascertain that an establishment or a facility is operating in full compliance with all laws, rules, and regulations. An accreditation inspection shall be conducted to accomplish the purposes of an operation inspection and to ascertain that a school of cosmetology, a nail technology school, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon is maintaining academic standards and requirements of a quality consistent with the purpose of the act. All accreditation inspections shall be announced at least two weeks prior to the actual inspection.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations governing the standards and criteria to be used in the conduct of inspections, the rating system to be used, and the level of achievement necessary to receive a passing grade.

(3) Operation inspections shall be unannounced and shall be conducted during the normal working hours of the establishment or facility.

(4) At the conclusion of the inspection, the owner or manager of the establishment or facility shall receive a copy of the rating form, which form shall be promptly displayed, and a statement of any deficiencies noted.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 130;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 52;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 85;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 47;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 29;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 38;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,169; Laws 2007, LB463, § 431.    


38-10,170. Inspection; unsatisfactory rating; effect.

If a cosmetology establishment, a nail technology establishment, or a body art facility receives a rating of unsatisfactory, it shall submit evidence to the department within fifteen days providing proof of corrective action taken. A repeat inspection shall be conducted within sixty days after the original inspection to determine if corrective action has occurred. The department may assess a fee for each repeat inspection required. If the establishment or facility receives an unsatisfactory rating on the repeat inspection, the establishment shall be fined as determined by the department by rule and regulation. If the establishment or facility receives an unsatisfactory rating after the second unsatisfactory inspection or fails to pay the fine assessed within thirty days after notice, the license shall immediately be placed on inactive status pending action by the department, and the establishment or facility may not operate in any manner while its license is inactive.

The owner or manager of an establishment or a facility whose license has been placed on inactive status may appear before the board and the department to show cause why the department should not ask the Attorney General to initiate steps to revoke the license. The department may, as a result of such appearance, grant additional time for corrective action to occur, but the establishment or facility may not operate during such time. The establishment or facility may not return to operation until it has achieved a satisfactory rating on an inspection.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 131;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 86;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 30;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,170; Laws 2007, LB463, § 432.    


38-10,171. Unprofessional conduct; acts enumerated.

Each of the following may be considered an act of unprofessional conduct when committed by a person licensed under the Cosmetology, Electrology, Esthetics, Nail Technology, and Body Art Practice Act:

(1) Performing any of the practices regulated under the act for which an individual is not licensed or operating an establishment or facility without the appropriate license;

(2) Obstructing, interfering, or failing to cooperate with an inspection or investigation conducted by an authorized representative of the department when acting in accordance with the act;

(3) Failing to report to the department a suspected violation of the act;

(4) Aiding and abetting an individual to practice any of the practices regulated under the act for which he or she is not licensed;

(5) Engaging in any of the practices regulated under the act for compensation in an unauthorized location;

(6) Engaging in the practice of any healing art or profession for which a license is required without holding such a license;

(7) Enrolling a student or an apprentice without obtaining the appropriate documents prior to enrollment;

(8) Knowingly falsifying any student or apprentice record or report;

(9) Initiating or continuing home services to a client who does not meet the criteria established in the act;

(10) Knowingly issuing a certificate of completion or diploma to a student or an apprentice who has not completed all requirements for the issuance of such document;

(11) Failing, by a school of cosmetology, a nail technology school, a school of esthetics, or an apprentice salon, to follow its published rules;

(12) Violating, by a school of cosmetology, nail technology school, or school of esthetics, any federal or state law involving the operation of a vocational school or violating any federal or state law involving participation in any federal or state loan or grant program;

(13) Knowingly permitting any person under supervision to violate any law, rule, or regulation or knowingly permitting any establishment or facility under supervision to operate in violation of any law, rule, or regulation;

(14) Receiving two unsatisfactory inspection reports within any sixty-day period;

(15) Engaging in any of the practices regulated under the act while afflicted with any active case of a serious contagious disease, infection, or infestation, as determined by the department, or in any other circumstances when such practice might be harmful to the health or safety of clients;

(16) Violating any rule or regulation relating to the practice of body art; and

(17) Performing body art on or to any person under eighteen years of age (a) without the prior written consent of the parent or court-appointed guardian of such person, (b) without the presence of such parent or guardian during the procedure, or (c) without retaining a copy of such consent for a period of five years.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 318, § 138;    Laws 1995, LB 83, § 54;    Laws 1999, LB 68, § 88;    Laws 2002, LB 241, § 49;    Laws 2004, LB 906, § 32;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 39;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-3,177; Laws 2007, LB463, § 433;    Laws 2018, LB731, § 66.    


38-10,172. Scleral tattooing; prohibited acts; civil penalty.

(1) For purposes of this section, scleral tattooing means the practice of using needles, scalpels, or other related equipment to produce an indelible mark or figure on the human eye by scarring or inserting a pigment on, in, or under:

(a) The fornix conjunctiva;

(b) The bulbar conjunctiva;

(c) The ocular conjunctiva; or

(d) Another ocular surface.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, a person shall not perform or offer to perform scleral tattooing on another person.

(3) This section does not apply to a person licensed to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act when the licensee is performing a procedure within the scope of her or his practice.

(4) In addition to the remedies authorized in section 38-140 or 38-1,124, a person who performs scleral tattooing without being authorized to do so under the Uniform Credentialing Act shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed ten thousand dollars for each violation. If a violation continues after notification, this constitutes a separate offense. The civil penalties shall be assessed in a civil action brought for such purpose by the Attorney General in the district court of the county in which the violation occurred. Any civil penalty assessed and unpaid under this section shall constitute a debt to the State of Nebraska which may be collected in the manner of a lien foreclosure or sued for and recovered in any proper form of action in the name of the State of Nebraska in the district court of the county in which the violator resides or owns property. The department may also collect in such action attorney's fees and costs incurred in the collection of the civil penalty. The department shall, within thirty days after receipt, transmit any collected civil penalty to the State Treasurer to be disposed of in accordance with Article VII, section 5, of the Constitution of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 2019, LB449, § 4.    


38-1101. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1101 to 38-1152 shall be known and may be cited as the Dentistry Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 434;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 1;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 1.    


38-1102. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Dentistry Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1102.01 to 38-1113 apply.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 435;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 2;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 2.    


38-1102.01. Accredited dental assisting program, defined.

Accredited dental assisting program means a program that is accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation, which is an agency recognized by the United States Department of Education as an accrediting body, that is within a school or college approved by the board, and that requires a dental assisting curriculum of not less than one academic year.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 3.    


38-1103. Accredited dental hygiene program, defined.

Accredited dental hygiene program means a program that is accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation, which is an agency recognized by the United States Department of Education as an accrediting body, that is within a school or college approved by the board, and that requires a dental hygiene curriculum of not less than two academic years.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 436.    


38-1104. Accredited school or college of dentistry, defined.

Accredited school or college of dentistry means a school or college approved by the board and accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation, which is an agency recognized by the United States Department of Education as an accrediting body.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 437.    


38-1105. Analgesia, defined.

Analgesia means the diminution or elimination of pain in the conscious patient.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 438.    


38-1106. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Dentistry.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 439.    


38-1106.01. Deep sedation, defined.

Deep sedation means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (1) a patient cannot be easily aroused but responds purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation, (2) the ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired, (3) a patient may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate, and (4) cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

Source:Laws 2015, LB80, § 3.    


38-1107. Dental assistant, defined.

Dental assistant means a person who does not hold a license under the Dentistry Practice Act and who is employed for the purpose of assisting a licensed dentist in the performance of his or her clinical and clinical-related duties as described in section 38-1135.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 267, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 2;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 4;    Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-183.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 440;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 4.    


38-1107.01. Expanded function dental assistant, defined.

Expanded function dental assistant means a licensed dental assistant who has met the requirements to practice as an expanded function dental assistant pursuant to section 38-1118.03.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 6.    


38-1107.02. Expanded function dental hygienist, defined.

Expanded function dental hygienist means a licensed dental hygienist who has met the requirements to practice as an expanded function dental hygienist pursuant to section 38-1118.01.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 8.    


38-1108. General anesthesia, defined.

General anesthesia means a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which (1) a patient is not arousable, even by painful stimulation, (2) the ability to independently maintain ventilatory function is often impaired, (3) a patient often requires assistance in maintaining a patent airway and positive pressure ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function, and (4) cardiovascular function may be impaired.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 441;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 4.    


38-1109. General supervision, defined.

General supervision means the directing of the authorized activities of a dental hygienist or dental assistant by a licensed dentist and shall not be construed to require the physical presence of the supervisor when directing such activities.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 442.    


38-1110. Indirect supervision, defined.

Indirect supervision means supervision when the licensed dentist authorizes the procedure to be performed by a dental hygienist or dental assistant and the licensed dentist is physically present on the premises when such procedure is being performed by the dental hygienist pursuant to section 38-1132 or the dental assistant.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 443.    


38-1111. Inhalation analgesia, defined.

Inhalation analgesia means the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen to diminish or eliminate pain in a conscious patient.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 444.    


38-1111.01. Licensed dental assistant, defined.

Licensed dental assistant means a dental assistant who holds a license to practice as a dental assistant under the Dentistry Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 5.    


38-1111.02. Licensed dental hygienist, defined.

Licensed dental hygienist means a person who holds a license to practice dental hygiene under the Dentistry Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 7.    


38-1112. Minimal sedation, defined.

Minimal sedation means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (1) a patient retains the ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond normally to tactile stimulation and verbal command, (2) cognitive function and coordination may be modestly impaired, and (3) ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are unaffected.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 445;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 5.    


38-1113. Moderate sedation, defined.

Moderate sedation means a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which (1) a patient responds purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation, (2) no intervention is required to maintain a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation is adequate, and (3) cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 446;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 6.    


38-1114. Board; membership.

The board shall have ten members. The members shall consist of two public members; six licensed dentists, including one official or member of the instructional staff from each accredited school or college of dentistry in this state; and two licensed dental hygienists.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 447.    


38-1115. Dentistry practice, defined.

Any person shall be deemed to be practicing dentistry who:

(1) Performs, or attempts or professes to perform, any dental operation or oral surgery or dental service of any kind, gratuitously or for a salary, fee, money, or other remuneration paid, or to be paid directly or indirectly, to such person or to any other person or agency who is a proprietor of a place where dental operations, oral surgery, or dental services are performed;

(2) Directly or indirectly, by any means or method, takes impression of the human tooth, teeth, jaws, or performs any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of a part of a tooth;

(3) Supplies artificial substitutes for the natural teeth or furnishes, supplies, constructs, reproduces, or repairs any prosthetic denture, bridge, appliance, or other structure to be worn in the human mouth, except on the written work authorization of a duly licensed and registered dentist;

(4) Places such appliance or structure in the human mouth, adjusts or attempts or professes to adjust the same, or delivers the same to any person other than the dentist upon whose work authorization the work was performed;

(5) Professes to the public by any method to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce, or repair any prosthetic denture, bridge, appliance, or other structure to be worn in the human mouth;

(6) Diagnoses, professes to diagnose, prescribes for, professes to prescribe for, treats, or professes to treat disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the human teeth or jaws, or adjacent structure;

(7) Extracts or attempts to extract human teeth or corrects or attempts to correct malformations of teeth or of the jaws;

(8) Repairs or fills cavities in the human teeth;

(9) Diagnoses, makes, and adjusts appliances to artificial casts or malposed teeth for treatment of the malposed teeth in the human mouth, with or without instruction;

(10) Uses a roentgen or X-ray machine for the purpose of taking dental X-rays or roentgenograms;

(11) Gives or professes to give interpretations or readings of dental X-rays or roentgenograms;

(12) Administers an anesthetic of any nature in connection with a dental operation;

(13) Uses the words dentist, dental surgeon, or oral surgeon, the letters D.D.S. or D.M.D., or any other words, letters, title, or descriptive matter which in any way represents such person as being able to diagnose, treat, prescribe, or operate for any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or physical condition of the teeth or jaws or adjacent structures; or

(14) States, professes, or permits to be stated or professed by any means or method whatsoever that he or she can perform or will attempt to perform dental operations or render a diagnosis connected therewith.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 82, p. 475; C.S.1929, § 71-1201; R.S.1943, § 71-183; Laws 1951, c. 226, § 1, p. 821; Laws 1951, c. 227, § 1, p. 825; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 10;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-183; Laws 2007, LB463, § 448.    


Cross References

38-1116. Dentistry practice; exceptions.

The Dentistry Practice Act shall not require licensure as a dentist under the act for:

(1) The practice of his or her profession by a physician or surgeon licensed as such under the laws of this state unless he or she practices dentistry as a specialty;

(2) The giving by a qualified anesthetist or registered nurse of an anesthetic for a dental operation under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist or physician;

(3) The practice of dentistry by graduate dentists or dental surgeons who serve in the armed forces of the United States or the United States Public Health Service or who are employed by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or other federal agencies, if their practice is limited to that service or employment;

(4) The practice of dentistry by a licensed dentist of other states or countries at meetings of the Nebraska Dental Association or components thereof, or other like dental organizations approved by the Board of Dentistry, while appearing as clinicians;

(5) The filling of work authorizations of a licensed and registered dentist as provided in this subdivision by any person or persons, association, corporation, or other entity for the construction, reproduction, or repair of prosthetic dentures, bridges, plates, or appliances to be used or worn as substitutes for natural teeth if such person or persons, association, corporation, or other entity does not solicit or advertise, directly or indirectly by mail, card, newspaper, pamphlet, radio, or otherwise, to the general public to construct, reproduce, or repair prosthetic dentures, bridges, plates, or other appliances to be used or worn as substitutes for natural teeth;

(6) The use of roentgen or X-ray machines or other rays for making radiograms or similar records of dental or oral tissues under the supervision of a licensed dentist or physician if such service is not advertised by any name whatever as an aid or inducement to secure dental patronage, and no person shall advertise that he or she has, leases, owns, or operates a roentgen or X-ray machine for the purpose of making dental radiograms of the human teeth or tissues or the oral cavity or administering treatment thereto for any disease thereof;

(7) The performance by a licensed dental hygienist, under the supervision of a licensed dentist, of the oral prophylaxis procedure which shall include the scaling and polishing of teeth and such additional procedures as are prescribed in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the department;

(8) The performance, under the supervision of a licensed dentist, by a dental assistant, a licensed dental assistant, or an expanded function dental assistant, of duties prescribed in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the department;

(9) The performance by a licensed dental hygienist or an expanded function dental hygienist, by virtue of training and professional ability, under the supervision of a licensed dentist, of taking dental roentgenograms. Any other person is hereby authorized, under the supervision of a licensed dentist, to take dental roentgenograms but shall not be authorized to do so until he or she has satisfactorily completed a course in dental radiology recommended by the board and approved by the department;

(10) Students of dentistry who practice dentistry upon patients in clinics in the regular course of instruction at an accredited school or college of dentistry;

(11) Licensed physicians and surgeons who extract teeth or treat diseases of the oral cavity, gums, teeth, or maxillary bones as an incident to the general practice of their profession;

(12) Dental hygiene students who practice dental hygiene or expanded function dental hygiene upon patients in clinics in the regular course of instruction at an accredited dental hygiene program. Such dental hygiene students are also not engaged in the unauthorized practice of dental hygiene or expanded function dental hygiene; or

(13) Dental assisting students who practice dental assisting or expanded function dental assisting upon patients in clinics in the regular course of instruction at an accredited dental assisting program. Such dental assisting students are also not engaged in the unauthorized practice of dental assisting, expanded function dental assisting, dental hygiene, or expanded function dental hygiene.

Source:Laws 1951, c. 226, § 2, p. 823; Laws 1951, c. 227, § 2, p. 827; Laws 1971, LB 587, § 11;    Laws 1984, LB 470, § 5;    Laws 1991, LB 2, § 10;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 407;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 1;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 68;    Laws 2005, LB 89, § 1;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-183.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 449;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 9.    


38-1117. Dentistry; license; requirements.

(1) Every applicant for a license to practice dentistry shall (a) present proof of graduation with a Doctor of Dental Surgery degree or a Doctor of Dental Medicine degree from an accredited school or college of dentistry, (b) pass an examination approved by the Board of Dentistry which shall consist of the National Board Dental Examinations, both Part I and Part II, as constructed and administered by the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, (c) demonstrate the applicant's skill in clinical dentistry by passing the practical examination administered by the Central Regional Dental Testing Service or any other regional or state practical examination that the Board of Dentistry determines to be comparable to such practical examination, (d) pass a jurisprudence examination approved by the board that is based on the Nebraska statutes, rules, and regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene, and (e) demonstrate continuing clinical competency as a condition of licensure if required by the board.

(2) Upon completion of these requirements, the department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue the applicant a license to practice dentistry.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 84, p. 476; Laws 1929, c. 160, § 1, p. 555; C.S.1929, § 71-1203; R.S.1943, § 71-185; Laws 1953, c. 238, § 4, p. 826; Laws 1957, c. 292, § 2, p. 1049; Laws 1984, LB 470, § 6;    Laws 1985, LB 250, § 12;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 30;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 69;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 17;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 34;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-185; Laws 2007, LB463, § 450.    


Cross References

38-1118. Dental hygienists; application for license; examination; qualifications; license.

(1) Every applicant for a license to practice dental hygiene shall (a) present proof of graduation from an accredited dental hygiene program, (b) pass an examination approved by the Board of Dentistry which shall consist of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination as constructed and administered by the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, (c) demonstrate the applicant's skill in clinical dental hygiene by passing the practical examination administered by the Central Regional Dental Testing Service or any other regional or state practical examination that the Board of Dentistry determines to be comparable to such practical examination, (d) pass a jurisprudence examination approved by the board that is based on the Nebraska statutes, rules, and regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene, and (e) demonstrate continuing clinical competency as a condition of licensure if required by the board.

(2) Upon completion of these requirements, the department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue the applicant a license to practice dental hygiene.

Source:Laws 1949, c. 200, § 1, p. 582; Laws 1953, c. 238, § 5, p. 827; Laws 1973, LB 589, § 1;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 42;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 32;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 73;    Laws 2001, LB 209, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.04; Laws 2007, LB463, § 451.    


Cross References

38-1118.01. Expanded function dental hygiene; application for permit; qualifications.

(1) Every applicant for a permit to practice expanded function dental hygiene shall (a) present proof of current, valid licensure under the Dentistry Practice Act as a licensed dental hygienist at the time of application, (b) present proof of at least one thousand five hundred hours of experience as a licensed dental hygienist, (c) present proof of successful completion of courses and examinations in expanded function dental hygiene approved by the board, (d) pass a jurisprudence examination approved by the board that is based on the Nebraska statutes, rules, and regulations governing the practice of expanded function dental hygiene, and (e) complete continuing education as a condition of the permit if required by the board.

(2) Upon completion of these requirements, the department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue the applicant the applicable permit to practice expanded function dental hygiene.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 10.    


38-1118.02. Licensed dental assistant; application for license; qualifications.

(1) Every applicant for a license to practice as a licensed dental assistant shall (a) have a high school diploma or its equivalent, (b) present proof of (i) graduation from an accredited dental assisting program or (ii) a minimum of one thousand five hundred hours of experience as a dental assistant during the five-year period prior to the application for a license, (c) pass the examination to become a certified dental assistant administered by the Dental Assisting National Board or an equivalent examination approved by the Board of Dentistry, (d) pass a jurisprudence examination approved by the board that is based on the Nebraska statutes, rules, and regulations governing the practice of dental assisting, and (e) complete continuing education as a condition of licensure if required by the board.

(2) Upon completion of these requirements, the department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue the applicant a license to practice as a licensed dental assistant.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 11.    


38-1118.03. Expanded function dental assistant; application for permit; qualifications.

(1) Every applicant for a permit to practice as an expanded function dental assistant shall (a) present proof of current, valid licensure under the Dentistry Practice Act as a licensed dental assistant at the time of application, (b) present proof of at least one thousand five hundred hours of experience as a licensed dental assistant, (c) present proof of successful completion of courses and examinations in expanded function dental assisting approved by the board, (d) pass a jurisprudence examination approved by the board that is based on the Nebraska statutes, rules, and regulations governing the practice of expanded function dental assisting, and (e) complete continuing education as a condition of the permit if required by the board.

(2) Upon completion of these requirements, the department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue the applicant the applicable permit to practice as an expanded function dental assistant.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 12.    


38-1119. Reexamination; requirements.

Any person who applies for a license to practice dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental assisting and who has failed on two occasions to pass any part of the practical examination shall be required to complete a course in clinical dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental assisting approved by the board before the department may consider the results of a third examination as a valid qualification for a license to practice dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental assisting in the State of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 452;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 13.    


38-1120. Dentist; reciprocity; requirements.

Every applicant for a license to practice dentistry based on a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia shall meet the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 and shall have been actively engaged in the practice of dentistry for at least three years, one of which must be within the three years immediately preceding the application, under a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia. Practice in an accredited school or college of dentistry for the purpose of completing a postgraduate or residency program in dentistry also serves as active practice toward meeting this requirement.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 453.    


38-1121. Dental hygienist; licensed dental assistant; reciprocity; requirements; military license; temporary license.

(1) Every applicant for a license to practice dental hygiene based on a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia shall meet the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 and shall have been actively engaged in the practice of dental hygiene for at least three years, one of which must be within the three years immediately preceding the application, under a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia. Practice in an accredited dental hygiene program for the purpose of completing a postgraduate or residency program in dental hygiene also serves as active practice toward meeting this requirement.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

(3) Every applicant for a license to practice as a licensed dental assistant based on a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia shall meet the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 and shall have been actively engaged in practice as a licensed dental assistant for at least three years, one of which must be within the three years immediately preceding the application, under a license in another state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia. Practice in an accredited dental assisting program for the purpose of completing a postgraduate or residency program in dental assisting also serves as active practice toward meeting this requirement.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 454;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 14;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 47.    


38-1122. Dental locum tenens; issuance; requirements; term.

When circumstances indicate a need for the issuance of a dental locum tenens in the State of Nebraska, the department, with the recommendation of the board, may issue a dental locum tenens to an individual who holds an active license to practice dentistry in another state if the requirements regarding education and examination for licensure in that state are equal to or exceed the requirements regarding education and examination for licensure in Nebraska. A dental locum tenens may be issued for a period not to exceed ninety days in any twelve-month period.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 455.    


38-1123. Dentist; resident license; requirements; term; renewal.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a resident license to any person who (a)(i) presents proof of graduation with a doctorate degree in dental surgery or dental medicine from an accredited school or college of dentistry, (ii) is enrolled in an accredited school or college of dentistry for the purpose of completing a postgraduate or residency program in dentistry, (iii) passes an examination approved by the board, which shall consist of the National Board Dental Examination, Parts I and II, or the Integrated National Board Dental Examination, as constructed and administered by the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, (iv) passes the practical examination administered by the Central Regional Dental Testing Service, ADEX, or any other regional or state practical examination approved by the board, and (v) passes a jurisprudence examination based on Nebraska law and administrative rules and regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene, or (b)(i) is licensed in another jurisdiction under conditions which the board finds equivalent to the requirements of the State of Nebraska for obtaining a license to practice dentistry and (ii) passes a jurisprudence examination based on Nebraska law and administrative rules and regulations governing the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene.

(2) An accredited school or college of dentistry shall provide input to the board annually for purposes of approving regional or state practical examinations.

(3) Any person who desires a resident license shall make application to the department. Such application shall be accompanied by the required fee.

(4) The resident license shall be issued for a period of one year and, upon application to the department, renewed annually without the licensee having to pay a renewal fee.

(5) The resident licensee shall be entitled to practice dentistry, including prescribing legend drugs and controlled substances, only under the auspices of the postgraduate or residency program in which he or she is enrolled.

(6) An applicant who is licensed pursuant to this section and has completed a postgraduate or residency program in dentistry at an accredited school or college of dentistry shall have demonstrated the applicant's skill in clinical dentistry for purposes of section 38-1117.

Source:Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 31;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 71;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 35;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-185.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 456;    Laws 2024, LB834, § 2.    
Effective Date: July 19, 2024


38-1124. Faculty license; practice; limitations; requirements; renewal; continuing competency.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a faculty license to any person who meets the requirements of subsection (3) or (4) of this section. A faculty licensee may practice dentistry as a faculty member at an accredited school or college of dentistry in the State of Nebraska. A faculty licensee may also teach dentistry, conduct research, and participate in an institutionally administered faculty practice. A faculty licensee eligible for licensure under subsection (4) of this section shall limit practice under such license to the clinical disciplines in which the licensee has received education at an accredited school or college of dentistry or, with the approval of the board, the clinical disciplines in which the licensee has practiced under a license, including a faculty license or teaching permit, to practice dentistry within the past three years in another jurisdiction.

(2) Any person who desires a faculty license shall make a written application to the department. The application shall include information regarding the applicant's professional qualifications, experience, and licensure. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the applicant's dental degree, any other degrees or certificates for postgraduate education of the applicant, the required fee, and certification from the dean of an accredited school or college of dentistry in the State of Nebraska at which the applicant has a contract to be employed as a full-time faculty member.

(3) An individual who graduated from an accredited school or college of dentistry shall be eligible for a faculty license if the individual:

(a) Has or had a license, including a faculty license or teaching permit, to practice dentistry within the past three years in another jurisdiction; and

(b) Passes a jurisprudence examination administered by the board.

(4) An individual who graduated from a nonaccredited school or college of dentistry shall be eligible for a faculty license if the individual:

(a)(i) Has or had a license, including a faculty license or teaching permit, to practice dentistry within the past three years in another jurisdiction;

(ii) Has completed at least two years of postgraduate education at an accredited school or college of dentistry recognized by the national commission and received a certificate or degree from such school or college of dentistry; or

(iii) Has additional education in dentistry at an accredited school or college of dentistry that is determined by the board to be equivalent to a program recognized by the national commission, including, but not limited to, a postgraduate certificate or degree in operative dentistry;

(b) Passes a jurisprudence examination administered by the board; and

(c) Has passed at least one of the following:

(i) Part I and Part II of the National Board Dental Examinations administered by the joint commission;

(ii) The Integrated National Board Dental Examination administered by the joint commission;

(iii) A specialty board examination recognized by the national commission;

(iv) An examination administered by the National Dental Examining Board of Canada; or

(v) An equivalent examination as determined by the Board of Dentistry.

(5) A faculty license shall expire at the same time and be subject to the same renewal requirements as a regular dental license, except that such license shall remain valid and may only be renewed if the faculty licensee completes continuing education as required by the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the Dentistry Practice Act and demonstrates continued employment at an accredited school or college of dentistry in the State of Nebraska.

(6) In order for an applicant to qualify for a faculty license pursuant to subdivision (4)(a)(iii) of this section, the applicant shall present, for review and approval by the board, a portfolio which includes, but is not limited to, academic achievements, credentials and certifications, letters of recommendation, and a list of publications.

(7) For purposes of this section:

(a) Another jurisdiction means some other state in the United States, a territory or jurisdiction of the United States, or a Canadian province;

(b) Joint commission means the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; and

(c) National commission means the National Commission on Recognition of Dental Specialties and Certifying Boards.

Source:Laws 2002, LB 1062, § 16;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 36;    Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 11;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-185.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 457;    Laws 2021, LB628, § 1.    


38-1125. Practitioner's facility; requirements; inspections; rules and regulations.

(1) For purposes of this section, practitioner's facility means a facility in which a licensed dentist practices his or her profession, other than a facility licensed pursuant to the Health Care Facility Licensure Act.

(2) The department shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations which are approved by the State Board of Health for practitioners' facilities in order to insure that such facilities are safe and sanitary and use precautions necessary to prevent the creation and spread of infectious and contagious diseases. Based upon a formal complaint, the department or its employees may inspect any practitioner's facility in this state to insure compliance with such regulations.

(3) Within thirty days after an inspection of a practitioner's facility which the department or its employees find to be in violation of its rules and regulations, the department shall notify the Board of Dentistry of its findings in writing. The Attorney General shall file a petition for disciplinary action pursuant to section 38-186 if the violation of the rules and regulations is not corrected within thirty days after the licensee has received notice of such violation. The department shall send a written progress report of its inspection and actions taken to the board.

(4) It shall be considered unprofessional conduct for a licensee to practice in a facility that does not comply with the rules and regulations regarding sanitary practitioners' facilities.

Source:Laws 1984, LB 470, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 408;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 70;    Laws 2000, LB 819, § 85;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-185.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 458.    


Cross References

38-1126. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing under the Dentistry Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 459.    


38-1127. Dentists; name of associate; duty to display.

Every person who owns, operates, or controls a dental office in which anyone other than himself or herself is practicing dentistry, shall display the name of such person or persons in a conspicuous place at the public entrance to such office.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 88, p. 478; C.S.1929, § 71-1207; R.S.1943, § 71-189; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-189; Laws 2007, LB463, § 460.    


38-1127.01. Expanded function dental assistant; expanded function dental hygienist; display of permit.

Every person who owns, operates, or controls a facility in which an expanded function dental assistant or an expanded function dental hygienist is practicing shall display the permit of such person issued by the board for expanded functions in a conspicuous place in such facility.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 15.    


38-1128. Dentist; unlicensed associate prohibited; coercion prohibited.

(1) No person owning, operating, or conducting any place where dental work of any kind is done or contracted for shall employ or permit any unlicensed dentist to practice dentistry in such place.

(2) No person shall coerce or attempt to coerce a licensed dentist to practice dentistry in any manner contrary to the standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of the dental profession. Any dentist subjected to such coercion or attempted coercion has a cause of action against the person and may recover his or her damages and reasonable attorney's fees.

(3) Violation of this section by a health care professional regulated pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act may be considered evidence of an act of unprofessional conduct.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 89, p. 478; C.S.1929, § 71-1208; R.S.1943, § 71-190; Laws 2004, LB 1005, § 12;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-190; Laws 2007, LB463, § 461.    


38-1129. Dentist; use of own name required; exception.

No person shall operate any place in which dentistry is practiced under any other name than his or her own or display in connection with his or her practice or on any advertising matter any other than his or her own name. Two or more licensed dentists who are associated in the practice may use all of their names. A widow, widower, or heir of a deceased dentist may operate such office under the name of the deceased dentist for a period of not longer than one year from the date of death.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 90, p. 479; C.S.1929, § 71-1209; R.S.1943, § 71-191; Laws 1957, c. 292, § 3, p. 1050; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-191; Laws 2007, LB463, § 462.    


38-1130. Licensed dental hygienist; functions authorized; when; department; duties; Health and Human Services Committee; report; hearing.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a licensed dental hygienist shall perform the dental hygiene functions listed in section 38-1131 only when authorized to do so by a licensed dentist who shall be responsible for the total oral health care of the patient.

(2) The department may authorize a licensed dental hygienist to perform the following functions in the conduct of public health-related services in a public health setting or in a health care or related facility: Preliminary charting and screening examinations; oral health education, including workshops and inservice training sessions on dental health; and all of the duties that a dental assistant who is not licensed is authorized to perform.

(3)(a) Except for periodontal scaling, root planing, and the administration of local anesthesia and nitrous oxide, the department may authorize a licensed dental hygienist to perform all of the authorized functions within the scope of practice of a licensed dental hygienist in the conduct of public health-related services in a public health setting or in a health care or related facility. In addition, the department may authorize a licensed dental hygienist to perform the following functions in such a setting or facility or for such a patient:

(i) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board, writing prescriptions for mouth rinses and fluoride products that help decrease risk for tooth decay; and

(ii) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board, minor denture adjustments.

(b) Authorization shall be granted by the department under this subsection upon (i) filing an application with the department and (ii) providing evidence of current licensure and professional liability insurance coverage. Authorization may be limited by the department as necessary to protect the public health and safety upon good cause shown and may be renewed in connection with renewal of the licensed dental hygienist's license.

(c) A licensed dental hygienist performing dental hygiene functions as authorized under this subsection shall (i) report authorized functions performed by him or her to the department on a form developed and provided by the department and (ii) advise the patient or recipient of services or his or her authorized representative that such services are preventive in nature and do not constitute a comprehensive dental diagnosis and care.

(4) The department shall compile the data from the reports provided under subdivision (3)(c)(i) of this section and provide an annual report to the Board of Dentistry and the State Board of Health. The department shall annually evaluate the delivery of dental hygiene services in the state and, on or before September 15 of each year beginning in 2021, provide a report electronically to the Clerk of the Legislature regarding such evaluation. The Health and Human Services Committee of the Legislature shall hold a hearing at least once every three years to assess the reports submitted pursuant to this subsection.

(5) For purposes of this section:

(a) Health care or related facility means a hospital, a nursing facility, an assisted-living facility, a correctional facility, a tribal clinic, or a school-based preventive health program; and

(b) Public health setting means a federal, state, or local public health department or clinic, community health center, rural health clinic, or other similar program or agency that serves primarily public health care program recipients.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 572, § 2;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 415;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 5;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.15; Laws 2007, LB247, § 24;    Laws 2007, LB296, § 328;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 463;    Laws 2013, LB484, § 1;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 16;    Laws 2020, LB312, § 1.    


38-1131. Licensed dental hygienist; procedures and functions authorized; enumerated.

When authorized by and under the general supervision of a licensed dentist, a licensed dental hygienist may perform the following intra and extra oral procedures and functions:

(1) Oral prophylaxis, periodontal scaling, and root planing which includes supragingival and subgingival debridement;

(2) Polish all exposed tooth surfaces, including restorations;

(3) Conduct and assess preliminary charting, probing, screening examinations, and indexing of dental and periodontal disease, with referral, when appropriate, for a dental diagnosis by a licensed dentist;

(4) Brush biopsies;

(5) Pulp vitality testing;

(6) Gingival curettage;

(7) Removal of sutures;

(8) Preventive measures, including the application of fluorides, sealants, and other recognized topical agents for the prevention of oral disease;

(9) Impressions for study casts;

(10) Application of topical and subgingival agents;

(11) Radiographic exposures;

(12) Oral health education, including conducting workshops and inservice training sessions on dental health;

(13) Application or administration of antimicrobial rinses, fluorides, and other anticariogenic agents;

(14) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board, interim therapeutic restoration technique; and

(15) All of the duties that a dental assistant who is not licensed is authorized to perform.

Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board and when authorized by and under the general supervision of a licensed dentist, a licensed dental hygienist may write prescriptions for mouth rinses and fluoride products that help decrease the risk for tooth decay.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 572, § 3;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 7;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.17; Laws 2007, LB247, § 25;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 464;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 17.    


38-1132. Licensed dental hygienist; activities related to analgesia authorized; administer local anesthesia; when.

(1)(a) A licensed dental hygienist may monitor nitrous oxide analgesia under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist.

(b) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board, a licensed dental hygienist may administer and titrate nitrous oxide analgesia under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist.

(2) A licensed dental hygienist may be approved by the department, with the recommendation of the board, to administer local anesthesia under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist. The board may prescribe by rule and regulation: The necessary education and preparation, which shall include, but not be limited to, instruction in the areas of head and neck anatomy, osteology, physiology, pharmacology, medical emergencies, and clinical techniques; the necessary clinical experience; and the necessary examination for purposes of determining the competence of licensed dental hygienists to administer local anesthesia. The board may approve successful completion after July 1, 1994, of a course of instruction to determine competence to administer local anesthesia. The course of instruction must be at an accredited school or college of dentistry or an accredited dental hygiene program. The course of instruction must be taught by a faculty member or members of the school or college of dentistry or dental hygiene program presenting the course. The board may approve for purposes of this subsection a course of instruction if such course includes:

(a) At least twelve clock hours of classroom lecture, including instruction in (i) medical history evaluation procedures, (ii) anatomy of the head, neck, and oral cavity as it relates to administering local anesthetic agents, (iii) pharmacology of local anesthetic agents, vasoconstrictor, and preservatives, including physiologic actions, types of anesthetics, and maximum dose per weight, (iv) systemic conditions which influence selection and administration of anesthetic agents, (v) signs and symptoms of reactions to local anesthetic agents, including monitoring of vital signs, (vi) management of reactions to or complications associated with the administration of local anesthetic agents, (vii) selection and preparation of the armamentaria for administering various local anesthetic agents, and (viii) methods of administering local anesthetic agents;

(b) At least twelve clock hours of clinical instruction during which time at least three injections of each of the anterior, middle, and posterior superior alveolar, naso and greater palatine, inferior alveolar, lingual, mental, long buccal, and infiltration injections are administered; and

(c) Procedures, which shall include an examination, for purposes of determining whether the licensed dental hygienist has acquired the necessary knowledge and proficiency to administer local anesthetic agents.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 572, § 4;    Laws 1995, LB 449, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 416;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 8;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 75;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 37;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.18; Laws 2007, LB296, § 329;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 465;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 18.    


38-1133. Department; additional procedures; rules and regulations.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may, by rule and regulation, prescribe functions, procedures, and services in addition to those in section 38-1131 which may be performed by a licensed dental hygienist under the supervision of a licensed dentist when such additional procedures are educational or related to the oral prophylaxis and intended to attain or maintain optimal oral health.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 572, § 6;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 417;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.19; Laws 2007, LB296, § 330;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 466.    


38-1134. Department; employment facilities; rules and regulations.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations providing for employment or work-setting facilities required for the provision of dental services by a licensed dental hygienist.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 572, § 7;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 418;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 76;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.20; Laws 2007, LB463, § 467.    


38-1135. Dental assistants, licensed dental assistants, and expanded function dental assistants; employment; duties performed; rules and regulations.

(1) Any licensed dentist, public institution, or school may employ dental assistants, licensed dental assistants, and expanded function dental assistants. Such dental assistants, under the supervision of a licensed dentist, may perform such duties as are prescribed in the Dentistry Practice Act in accordance with rules and regulations adopted and promulgated by the department, with the recommendation of the board.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations pursuant to section 38-126 governing the performance of duties by dental assistants, licensed dental assistants, and expanded function dental assistants. The rules and regulations shall include the degree of supervision which must be provided by a licensed dentist and the education and proof of competency requirements that must be met for any procedures performed by a dental assistant, a licensed dental assistant, or an expanded function dental assistant.

(3) A dental assistant may perform duties delegated by a licensed dentist for the purpose of assisting the licensed dentist in the performance of the dentist’s clinical and clinical-related duties as allowed in the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated under the Dentistry Practice Act.

(4) Under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist, a dental assistant may (a) monitor nitrous oxide if the dental assistant has current and valid certification for cardiopulmonary resuscitation approved by the board and (b) place topical local anesthesia.

(5) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board, a dental assistant may:

(a) Take X-rays under the general supervision of a licensed dentist; and

(b) Perform coronal polishing under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist.

(6) A licensed dental assistant may perform all procedures authorized for a dental assistant. Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board and with a permit from the department for the respective competency, a licensed dental assistant may, under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist, (a) take dental impressions for fixed prostheses, (b) take dental impressions and make minor adjustments for removable prostheses, (c) cement prefabricated fixed prostheses on primary teeth, and (d) monitor and administer nitrous oxide analgesia.

(7) Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board and with a permit from the department for the respective competency, an expanded function dental assistant may, under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist, place (a) restorative level one simple restorations (one surface) and (b) restorative level two complex restorations (multiple surfaces).

(8) A dental assistant may be a graduate of an accredited dental assisting program or may be trained on the job.

(9) No person shall practice as a licensed dental assistant in this state unless he or she holds a license as a licensed dental assistant under the Dentistry Practice Act.

(10) No person shall practice as an expanded function dental assistant in this state unless he or she holds a permit as an expanded function dental assistant under the act.

(11) A licensed dentist shall only delegate duties to a dental assistant, a licensed dental assistant, or an expanded function dental assistant in accordance with rules and regulations adopted and promulgated pursuant to the Dentistry Practice Act. The licensed dentist supervising a dental assistant, a licensed dental assistant, or an expanded function dental assistant shall be responsible for patient care for each patient regardless of whether the patient care is rendered personally by the dentist or by a dental assistant, a licensed dental assistant, or an expanded function dental assistant.

Source:Laws 1971, LB 587, § 13;    Laws 1986, LB 572, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 413;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 3;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.13; Laws 2007, LB296, § 327;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 468;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 20.    


38-1136. Licensed dental hygienists and expanded function dental hygienists; employment authorized; performance of duties; rules and regulations; license or permit required.

(1) Any licensed dentist, public institution, or school may employ licensed dental hygienists and expanded function dental hygienists.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations governing the performance of duties by licensed dental hygienists and expanded function dental hygienists. The rules and regulations shall include the degree of supervision which must be provided by a licensed dentist and the education and proof of competency requirements that must be met for any procedures performed by a licensed dental hygienist or an expanded function dental hygienist.

(3) No person shall practice dental hygiene in this state unless he or she holds a license as a licensed dental hygienist under the Dentistry Practice Act.

(4) No person shall practice expanded function dental hygiene in this state unless he or she holds a permit as an expanded function dental hygienist under the act.

(5) A licensed dentist shall only delegate duties to a licensed dental hygienist or an expanded function dental hygienist in accordance with rules and regulations adopted and promulgated pursuant to the Dentistry Practice Act. The licensed dentist supervising a licensed dental hygienist or an expanded function dental hygienist shall be responsible for patient care for each patient regardless of whether the patient care is rendered personally by the dentist or by a licensed dental hygienist or an expanded function dental hygienist.

Source:Laws 1971, LB 587, § 14;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 414;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 4;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 74;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.14; Laws 2007, LB463, § 469;    Laws 2017, LB18, § 21.    


38-1136.01. Licensed dental assistant; additional functions, procedures, and services.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may, by rule and regulation, prescribe functions, procedures, and services in addition to those in section 38-1135 which may be performed by a licensed dental assistant under the supervision of a licensed dentist when intended to attain or maintain optimal oral health.

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 19.    


38-1137. Administration of anesthesia or sedation; permit required; exception.

A dentist licensed in this state shall not administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation in the practice of dentistry unless he or she has been issued the appropriate permit pursuant to the Dentistry Practice Act. A dentist licensed in this state may administer inhalation analgesia in the practice of dentistry without a permit pursuant to the act.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 3;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.23; Laws 2007, LB463, § 470;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 7.    


38-1138. Violations; effect.

A violation of provisions of the Dentistry Practice Act relating to the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, minimal sedation, or inhalation analgesia may result in action against the dentist's permit, license, or both pursuant to section 38-196.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 5;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 33;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.25; Laws 2007, LB463, § 471;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 8.    


38-1139. Permit to administer general anesthesia or deep sedation; issuance; conditions; existing permit; how treated.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a permit to a Nebraska-licensed dentist to administer general anesthesia or deep sedation on an outpatient basis to dental patients if the dentist:

(a) Maintains a properly equipped facility for the administration of general anesthesia or deep sedation as determined by the board;

(b) Is currently certified in basic life-support skills for health care providers as determined by the board and either advanced cardiac life support or an appropriate emergency management course for anesthesia and dental sedation as determined by the board;

(c) Has successfully completed an onsite evaluation covering the areas of physical evaluation, monitoring, sedation, and emergency medicine; and

(d) Meets at least one of the following criteria:

(i) Has completed an advanced education program approved by the board that affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage general anesthesia or deep sedation; or

(ii) Is a fellow of the American Dental Society of Anesthesiology.

(2) A dentist who has been issued a permit pursuant to this section may administer moderate or minimal sedation.

(3) A dentist who has been issued a permit to administer general anesthesia pursuant to this section prior to July 1, 2016, may administer deep, moderate, or minimal sedation.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.26; Laws 2007, LB463, § 472;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 9.    


38-1140. Permit to administer moderate sedation; issuance; conditions; existing permit; how treated.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a permit to a Nebraska-licensed dentist to administer moderate sedation on an outpatient basis to dental patients if the dentist:

(a) Maintains a properly equipped facility for the administration of moderate sedation as determined by the board;

(b) Is currently certified in basic life-support skills for health care providers as determined by the board and either advanced cardiac life support or an appropriate emergency management course for anesthesia and dental sedation as determined by the board;

(c) Has successfully completed an onsite evaluation covering the areas of physical evaluation, monitoring, sedation, and emergency medicine; and

(d) Meets at least one of the following criteria:

(i) Has completed an advanced education program approved by the board that affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage moderate sedation; or

(ii) Is a fellow of the American Dental Society of Anesthesiology.

(2) A dentist who has been issued a permit pursuant to this section may administer minimal sedation.

(3) A dentist who has been issued a permit to administer parenteral sedation pursuant to this section prior to July 1, 2016, may administer moderate or minimal sedation.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 7;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.27; Laws 2007, LB463, § 473;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 10.    


38-1141. Permit to administer minimal sedation; issuance; conditions; termination of existing permit.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a permit to a Nebraska-licensed dentist to administer minimal sedation on an outpatient basis to dental patients if the dentist:

(a) Maintains a properly equipped facility for the administration of minimal sedation as determined by the board;

(b) Is currently certified in basic life-support skills for health care providers as determined by the board and, if providing minimal sedation for persons twelve years of age and under, is currently certified in pediatric advanced life support as determined by the board; and

(c) Meets at least one of the following criteria:

(i) Has completed an advanced education program approved by the board that affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage minimal sedation; or

(ii) Has completed training to the level of competency in minimal sedation consistent with the standards set by the American Dental Association as determined by the board or a comprehensive training program in minimal sedation as approved by the board.

(2) An inhalation analgesia permit issued pursuant to this section prior to July 1, 2016, terminates on such date.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.29; Laws 2007, LB463, § 474;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 11.    


38-1142. Presence of licensed dental hygienist or dental assistant required.

General anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, and minimal sedation shall not be administered by a dentist without the presence and assistance of a licensed dental hygienist or a dental assistant.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 8;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 9;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.28; Laws 2007, LB463, § 475;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 12.    


38-1143. Assistant; certification required.

Any person who assists a dentist in the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation shall be currently certified in basic life-support skills or the equivalent thereof.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 13;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.33; Laws 2007, LB463, § 476;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 13.    


38-1144. Administration of anesthesia, sedation, or analgesia; limitation.

Nothing in the Dentistry Practice Act shall be construed to allow a dentist to administer to himself or herself, or to any person other than in the course of the practice of dentistry, any drug or agent used for general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, minimal sedation, or inhalation analgesia.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 10;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.30; Laws 2007, LB463, § 477;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 14.    


38-1145. Permits; term; department; adopt rules and regulations.

(1) Permits issued for the administration of general anesthesia or deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation pursuant to the Dentistry Practice Act shall be valid until March 1 of the next odd-numbered year after issuance. A permit issued for the administration of general anesthesia prior to July 1, 2016, shall remain valid subject to the Dentistry Practice Act until March 1 of the next odd-numbered year, and it may be renewed subject to the Dentistry Practice Act as a general anesthesia or deep sedation permit. A permit issued for the administration of parenteral sedation prior to July 1, 2016, shall remain valid subject to the Dentistry Practice Act until March 1 of the next odd-numbered year, and it may be renewed subject to the Dentistry Practice Act as a moderate sedation permit.

(2) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to define criteria for the reevaluation of credentials, facilities, equipment, dental hygienists, and dental assistants and procedures of a previously qualified dentist to renew his or her permit for each subsequent renewal.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 11;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 34;    Laws 1999, LB 800, § 10;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 38;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.31; Laws 2007, LB463, § 478;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 15.    


38-1146. Inspection of practice location.

All practice locations of a dentist applying for a permit to administer general anesthesia or deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation may be inspected at the discretion of the board. The board may contract to have such inspections performed. The board shall not delegate authority to review and to make recommendations on permit applications or to determine the persons or facilities to be inspected.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.32; Laws 2007, LB463, § 479;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 16.    


38-1147. Incident report; contents; failure to submit; penalty.

(1) All licensed dentists practicing in this state shall submit a report to the board within thirty days of any incident which results in death or physical or mental injury requiring hospitalization of a patient which occurs in the outpatient facilities of such dentist during, or as a direct result of, general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, minimal sedation, or inhalation analgesia.

(2) The incident report shall include, but not be limited to:

(a) A description of the dental procedure;

(b) A description of the preoperative physical condition of the patient;

(c) A list of the drugs and the dosage administered;

(d) A detailed description of the techniques used in administering the drugs;

(e) A description of the incident, including, but not limited to, a detailed description of the symptoms of any complications, the symptoms of onset, and the type of symptoms in the patient;

(f) A description of the treatment instituted;

(g) A description of the patient's response to the treatment; and

(h) A description of the patient's condition on termination of any procedures undertaken.

(3) Failure to submit an incident report as required by this section shall result in the loss of the permit.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.34; Laws 2007, LB463, § 480;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 17.    


38-1148. Department; permits to administer anesthesia or sedation; administration of analgesia; adopt rules and regulations.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations necessary to carry out the provisions of the Dentistry Practice Act relating to permits to administer general anesthesia or deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation and relating to administration of inhalation analgesia.

Source:Laws 1986, LB 438, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-193.35; Laws 2007, LB463, § 481;    Laws 2015, LB80, § 18.    


38-1149. Office of Oral Health and Dentistry; Dental Health Director; appointment.

There is hereby established the Office of Oral Health and Dentistry in the department. The head of such office shall be known as the Dental Health Director and shall be appointed by the department. The Dental Health Director shall give full time to his or her duties.

Source:Laws 1949, c. 201, § 1, p. 584; Laws 1953, c. 239, § 1, p. 828; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 411;    Laws 2006, LB 994, § 82;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-193.01; Laws 2007, LB296, § 326;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 482.    


38-1150. Dental Health Director; qualifications.

The Dental Health Director shall be a graduate of an accredited school or college of dentistry and shall be licensed by the State of Nebraska to practice dentistry in Nebraska or duly licensed to practice dentistry in some other state of the United States of America.

Source:Laws 1949, c. 201, § 2, p. 584; Laws 1953, c. 240, § 1, p. 829; Laws 2006, LB 994, § 83;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-193.02; Laws 2007, LB463, § 483.    


38-1151. Office of Oral Health and Dentistry; duties; rules and regulations.

The duties of the Office of Oral Health and Dentistry shall be the promotion and development of activities which will result in the practice and improvement of the dental health of the people of the state under rules and regulations adopted and promulgated by the department.

Source:Laws 1949, c. 201, § 3, p. 585; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 412;    Laws 2006, LB 994, § 84;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-193.03; Laws 2007, LB463, § 484.    


38-1152. Expanded function dental hygienist; authorized activities.

An expanded function dental hygienist may perform all the procedures authorized for a licensed dental hygienist. Upon completion of education and testing approved by the board and with a permit from the department for the respective competency, an expanded function dental hygienist may, under the indirect supervision of a licensed dentist, place (1) restorative level one simple restorations (one surface) and (2) restorative level two complex restorations (multiple surfaces).

Source:Laws 2017, LB18, § 22.    


38-1201. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1201 to 38-1239 shall be known and may be cited as the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 1;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 128;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5172; Laws 2007, LB463, § 485;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 8;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 11;    Laws 2024, LB910, § 1;    Laws 2024, LB1355, § 1.    

Note: The Revisor of Statutes has pursuant to section 49-769 correlated LB910, section 1, with LB1355, section 1, to reflect all amendments.

Note: Changes made by LB910 became operative July 1, 2025. Changes made by LB1355 became operative April 17, 2024.


38-1202. Legislative intent; act; how construed.

It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act to (1) effectuate the delivery of quality emergency medical care in the state, (2) provide for the appropriate licensure of persons providing emergency medical care and licensure of organizations providing emergency medical services, (3) provide for the establishment of educational requirements and permitted practices for persons providing emergency medical care, (4) provide a system for regulation of emergency medical care which encourages emergency care providers and emergency medical services to provide the highest degree of care which they are capable of providing, and (5) provide a flexible system for the regulation of emergency care providers and emergency medical services that protects public health and safety.

The act shall be liberally construed to effect the purposes of, carry out the intent of, and discharge the responsibilities prescribed in the act.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5173; Laws 2007, LB463, § 486;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 12.    


38-1203. Legislative findings.

The Legislature finds:

(1) That emergency medical care is a primary and essential health care service and that the presence of an adequately equipped ambulance and trained emergency care providers may be the difference between life and death or permanent disability to those persons in Nebraska making use of such services in an emergency;

(2) That effective delivery of emergency medical care may be assisted by a program of training and licensure of emergency care providers and licensure of emergency medical services in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the board;

(3) That the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act is essential to aid in advancing the quality of care being provided by emergency care providers and by emergency medical services and the provision of effective, practical, and economical delivery of emergency medical care in the State of Nebraska;

(4) That the services to be delivered by emergency care providers are complex and demanding and that training and other requirements appropriate for delivery of the services must be constantly reviewed and updated; and

(5) That the enactment of a regulatory system that can respond to changing needs of patients and emergency care providers and emergency medical services is in the best interests of the residents of Nebraska.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 3;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5174; Laws 2007, LB463, § 487;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 13.    


38-1204. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1204.01 to 38-1214 apply.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 4;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5175; Laws 2007, LB296, § 602;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 488;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 9;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 14.    


38-1204.01. Advanced emergency medical technician practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Advanced emergency medical technician practice of emergency medical care means care provided in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for an advanced emergency medical technician. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) all of the acts that an emergency medical technician is authorized to perform and (2) complex interventions, treatments, and pharmacological interventions.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 10;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 15.    


38-1205. Ambulance, defined.

Ambulance means any privately or publicly owned motor vehicle or aircraft that is especially designed, constructed or modified, and equipped and is intended to be used and is maintained or operated for the overland or air transportation of patients upon the streets, roads, highways, airspace, or public ways in this state or any other motor vehicles or aircraft used for such purposes.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 489;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 11.    


38-1206. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Emergency Medical Services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 490.    


38-1206.01. Emergency medical responder practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Emergency medical responder practice of emergency medical care means care provided in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for an emergency medical responder. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) contributing to the assessment of the health status of an individual, (2) simple, noninvasive interventions, and (3) minimizing secondary injury to an individual.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 12;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 19.    


38-1206.02. Community paramedic practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Community paramedic practice of emergency medical care means care provided by an advanced emergency medical technician, emergency medical technician, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or paramedic in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for a community paramedic at the respective licensure classification of the emergency care provider except for an emergency medical responder. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) the provision of telephone triage, advice, or other assistance to nonurgent 911 calls, (2) the provision of assistance or education to patients with chronic disease management, including posthospital discharge followup to prevent hospital admission or readmission, and (3) all of the acts that the respective licensure classification of an emergency care provider is authorized to perform.

Source:Laws 2020, LB1002, § 16.    


38-1206.03. Critical care paramedic practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Critical care paramedic practice of emergency medical care means care provided by a paramedic in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for a critical care paramedic. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) all of the acts that a paramedic is licensed to perform, (2) advanced clinical patient assessment, (3) intravenous infusions, and (4) complex interventions, treatments, and pharmacological interventions used to treat critically ill or injured patients within the critical care environment, including transport.

Source:Laws 2020, LB1002, § 17.    


38-1206.04. Emergency care provider, defined.

Emergency care provider includes all licensure classifications of emergency care providers established pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act. Prior to December 31, 2025, emergency care provider includes advanced emergency medical technician, community paramedic, critical care paramedic, emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, emergency medical technician-intermediate, and paramedic. On and after December 31, 2025, emergency care provider includes advanced emergency medical technician, community paramedic, critical care paramedic, emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, and paramedic.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 492;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 15;    R.S.Supp.,2018, § 38-1208; Laws 2020, LB1002, § 18.    


38-1207. Emergency medical service, defined; amendment of section; how construed.

Emergency medical service means the organization responding to a perceived individual need for medical care in order to prevent loss of life or aggravation of physiological or psychological illness or injury. The amendment of this section by Laws 2012, LB646, shall not be construed to modify or expand or authorize the modification or expansion of the scope of practice of any licensure classifications established pursuant to section 38-1217.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 491;    Laws 2012, LB646, § 1.    


38-1207.01. Emergency medical technician practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Emergency medical technician practice of emergency medical care means care provided in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for an emergency medical technician. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) all of the acts that an emergency medical responder can perform, and (2) simple invasive interventions, management and transportation of individuals, and nonvisualized intubation.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 13;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 20.    


38-1207.02. Emergency medical technician-intermediate practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Emergency medical technician-intermediate practice of emergency medical care means care provided in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for an emergency medical technician-intermediate. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) all of the acts that an advanced emergency medical technician can perform, and (2) visualized intubation. This section terminates on December 31, 2025.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 14;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 21.    


38-1208. Transferred to section 38-1206.04.

38-1208.01. Paramedic practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Paramedic practice of emergency medical care means care provided in accordance with the knowledge and skill acquired through successful completion of an approved program for a paramedic. Such care includes, but is not limited to, (1) all of the acts that an emergency medical technician-intermediate can perform, and (2) surgical cricothyrotomy.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 16;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 22.    


38-1208.02. Practice of emergency medical care, defined.

Practice of emergency medical care means the performance of any act using judgment or skill based upon the United States Department of Transportation education standards and guideline training requirements, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's National Emergency Medical Service Scope of Practice Model and National Emergency Medical Services Education Standards, an education program for a community paramedic or a critical care paramedic that is approved by the board and the Department of Health and Human Services, and permitted practices and procedures for the level of licensure listed in section 38-1217. Such acts include the identification of and intervention in actual or potential health problems of individuals and are directed toward addressing such problems based on actual or perceived traumatic or medical circumstances. Such acts are provided under therapeutic regimens ordered by a physician medical director or through protocols as provided by the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 17;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 23.    


38-1209. Patient, defined.

Patient means an individual who either identifies himself or herself as being in need of medical attention or upon assessment by an emergency care provider has an injury or illness requiring treatment.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 493;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 24.    


38-1210. Physician medical director, defined.

Physician medical director means a qualified physician who is responsible for the medical supervision of emergency care providers and verification of skill proficiency of emergency care providers pursuant to section 38-1217.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 494;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 25.    


38-1211. Protocol, defined.

Protocol means a set of written policies, procedures, and directions from a physician medical director to an emergency care provider concerning the medical procedures to be performed in specific situations.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 495;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 26.    


38-1212. Qualified physician, defined.

Qualified physician means an individual who is licensed to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act and meets any other requirements established by rule and regulation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 496.    


38-1213. Qualified physician surrogate, defined.

Qualified physician surrogate means a qualified, trained medical person designated by a qualified physician in writing to act as an agent for the physician in directing the actions or renewal of licensure of emergency care providers.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 497;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 27.    


38-1214. Standing order, defined.

Standing order means a direct order from the physician medical director to perform certain tasks for a patient under a specific set of circumstances.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 498.    


38-1215. Board; members; terms; meetings; removal.

(1) The board shall have seventeen members appointed by the Governor with the approval of a majority of the Legislature. The appointees may begin to serve immediately following appointment and prior to approval by the Legislature.

(2)(a) Seven members of the board shall be active emergency care providers at the time of and for the duration of their appointment, and each shall have at least five years of experience in his or her level of licensure at the time of his or her appointment or reappointment. Of the seven members who are emergency care providers, two shall be emergency medical responders, two shall be emergency medical technicians, one shall be an advanced emergency medical technician, and two shall be paramedics.

(b) Three of the members shall be qualified physicians actively involved in emergency medical care. At least one of the physician members shall be a board-certified emergency physician, and at least one of the physician members shall specialize in pediatrics.

(c) Five members shall be appointed to include one member who is a representative of an approved training agency, one member who is a physician assistant with at least five years of experience and active in emergency medical care education, one member who is a registered nurse with at least five years of experience and active in emergency medical care education, and two public members who meet the requirements of section 38-165 and who have an expressed interest in the provision of emergency medical care.

(d) The remaining two members shall have any of the qualifications listed in subdivision (a), (b), or (c) of this subsection.

(e) In addition to any other criteria for appointment, among the members of the board appointed after January 1, 2017, there shall be at least three members who are volunteer emergency medical care providers, at least one member who is a paid emergency medical care provider, at least one member who is a firefighter, at least one member who is a law enforcement officer, and at least one member who is active in the Critical Incident Stress Management Program. If a person appointed to the board is qualified to serve as a member in more than one capacity, all qualifications of such person shall be taken into consideration to determine whether or not the diversity in qualifications required in this subsection has been met.

(f) At least five members of the board shall be appointed from each congressional district, and at least one of such members shall be a physician member described in subdivision (b) of this subsection.

(3) Members shall serve five-year terms beginning on December 1 and may serve for any number of such terms. The terms of the members of the board appointed prior to December 1, 2008, shall be extended by two years and until December 1 of such year. Each member shall hold office until the expiration of his or her term. Any vacancy in membership, other than by expiration of a term, shall be filled within ninety days by the Governor by appointment as provided in subsection (2) of this section.

(4) Special meetings of the board may be called by the department or upon the written request of any six members of the board explaining the reason for such meeting. The place of the meetings shall be set by the department.

(5) The Governor upon recommendation of the department shall have power to remove from office at any time any member of the board for physical or mental incapacity to carry out the duties of a board member, for continued neglect of duty, for incompetency, for acting beyond the individual member's scope of authority, for malfeasance in office, for any cause for which a professional credential may be suspended or revoked pursuant to the Uniform Credentialing Act, or for a lack of license required by the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act.

(6) Except as provided in subsection (5) of this section and notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, a member of the board who changes his or her licensure classification after appointment or has a licensure classification which is terminated under section 38-1207.02 or 38-1217 when such licensure classification was a qualification for appointment shall be permitted to continue to serve as a member of the board until the expiration of his or her term.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 5;    Laws 1998, LB 1073, § 146;    Laws 2004, LB 821, § 18;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-5176; Laws 2007, LB463, § 499;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 12;    Laws 2016, LB952, § 1;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 18;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 28.    


Cross References

38-1216. Board; duties.

In addition to any other responsibilities prescribed by the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act, the board shall:

(1) Promote the dissemination of public information and education programs to inform the public about emergency medical service and other medical information, including appropriate methods of medical self-help, first aid, and the availability of emergency medical services training programs in the state;

(2) Provide for the collection of information for evaluation of the availability and quality of emergency medical care, evaluate the availability and quality of emergency medical care, and serve as a focal point for discussion of the provision of emergency medical care;

(3) Establish model procedures for patient management in medical emergencies that do not limit the authority of law enforcement and fire protection personnel to manage the scene during a medical emergency;

(4) Not less than once each five years, undertake a review and evaluation of the act and its implementation together with a review of the emergency medical care needs of the residents of the State of Nebraska and submit electronically a report to the Legislature with any recommendations which it may have; and

(5) Identify communication needs of emergency medical services and make recommendations for development of a communications plan for a communications network for emergency care providers and emergency medical services.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5177; Laws 2007, LB463, § 500;    Laws 2012, LB782, § 38;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 19;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 29.    


38-1217. Rules and regulations.

The board shall adopt rules and regulations necessary to:

(1) Create licensure requirements for advanced emergency medical technicians, community paramedics, critical care paramedics, emergency medical responders, emergency medical technicians, and paramedics and, until December 31, 2025, create renewal requirements for emergency medical technicians-intermediate. The rules and regulations shall include all criteria and qualifications for each classification determined to be necessary for protection of public health and safety;

(2) Provide for temporary licensure of an emergency care provider who has completed the educational requirements for a licensure classification enumerated in subdivision (1) of this section but has not completed the testing requirements for licensure under such subdivision. A temporary license shall allow the person to practice only in association with a licensed emergency care provider under physician medical direction and shall be valid until the date on which the results of the next licensure examination are available to the department. The temporary license shall expire immediately if the applicant has failed the examination. In no case may a temporary license be issued for a period extending beyond one year. The rules and regulations shall include qualifications and training necessary for issuance of such temporary license, the practices and procedures authorized for a temporary licensee under this subdivision, and supervision required for a temporary licensee under this subdivision. The requirements of this subdivision and the rules and regulations adopted and promulgated pursuant to this subdivision do not apply to a temporary license issued as provided in section 38-129.01;

(3) Provide for temporary licensure of an emergency care provider relocating to Nebraska, if such emergency care provider is lawfully authorized to practice in another state that has adopted the licensing standards of the EMS Personnel Licensure Interstate Compact. Such temporary licensure shall be valid for one year or until a license is issued and shall not be subject to renewal. The requirements of this subdivision do not apply to a temporary license issued as provided in section 38-129.01;

(4) Set standards for the licensure of basic life support services and advanced life support services. The rules and regulations providing for licensure shall include standards and requirements for: Vehicles, equipment, maintenance, sanitation, inspections, personnel, training, medical direction, records maintenance, practices and procedures to be provided by employees or members of each classification of service, and other criteria for licensure established by the board;

(5) Authorize emergency medical services to provide differing practices and procedures depending upon the qualifications of emergency care providers available at the time of service delivery. No emergency medical service shall be licensed to provide practices or procedures without the use of personnel licensed to provide the practices or procedures;

(6) Authorize emergency care providers to perform any practice or procedure which they are authorized to perform with an emergency medical service other than the service with which they are affiliated when requested by the other service and when the patient for whom they are to render services is in danger of loss of life;

(7) Provide for the approval of training agencies, provide for disciplinary or corrective action against training agencies, and establish minimum standards for services provided by training agencies;

(8) Provide for the minimum qualifications of a physician medical director in addition to the licensure required by section 38-1212;

(9) Provide for the use of physician medical directors, qualified physician surrogates, model protocols, standing orders, operating procedures, and guidelines which may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act. The model protocols, standing orders, operating procedures, and guidelines may be modified by the physician medical director for use by any emergency care provider or emergency medical service before or after adoption;

(10) Establish renewal and reinstatement requirements for emergency care providers and establish continuing competency requirements. Continuing education is sufficient to meet continuing competency requirements. The requirements may also include, but not be limited to, one or more of the continuing competency activities listed in section 38-145 which a licensed person may select as an alternative to continuing education. The reinstatement requirements for emergency care providers shall allow reinstatement at the same or any lower level of licensure for which the emergency care provider is determined to be qualified;

(11) Create licensure, renewal, and reinstatement requirements for emergency medical service instructors. The rules and regulations shall include the practices and procedures for licensure, renewal, and reinstatement;

(12) Establish criteria for emergency medical technicians-intermediate, advanced emergency medical technicians, emergency medical technicians, community paramedics, critical care paramedics, or paramedics performing activities within their scope of practice and as determined by a licensed health care practitioner as defined in section 38-1224; and

(13) Establish model protocols for compliance with the Stroke System of Care Act by an emergency medical service and an emergency care provider.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 7;    Laws 1999, LB 498, § 2;    Laws 2001, LB 238, § 1;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 87;    Laws 2002, LB 1033, § 1;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5178; Laws 2007, LB463, § 501;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 13;    Laws 2016, LB722, § 10;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 48;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 20;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 30.    


Cross References

38-1218. Curricula for licensure classification; board; powers; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) The board may approve curricula for the licensure classifications listed in the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act.

(2) The department and the board shall consider the following factors, in addition to other factors required or permitted by the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act, when adopting rules and regulations for a licensure classification:

(a) Whether the initial training required for licensure in the classification is sufficient to enable the emergency care provider to perform the practices and procedures authorized for the classification in a manner which is beneficial to the patient and protects public health and safety;

(b) Whether the practices and procedures to be authorized are necessary to the efficient and effective delivery of emergency medical care;

(c) Whether morbidity can be reduced or recovery enhanced by the use of the practices and procedures to be authorized for the classification; and

(d) Whether continuing competency requirements are sufficient to maintain the skills authorized for the classification.

(3) An applicant for licensure for a licensure classification listed in subdivision (1) of section 38-1217 who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 8;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 88;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5179; Laws 2007, LB463, § 502;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 14;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 49;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 21;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 31.    


38-1218.01. Decisions of Interstate Commission for Emergency Medical Services Personnel Practice; board; duties.

The board shall review decisions of the Interstate Commission for Emergency Medical Services Personnel Practice established pursuant to the EMS Personnel Licensure Interstate Compact. Upon approval by the commission of any action that will have the result of increasing the cost to the state for membership in the compact, the board may recommend to the Legislature that Nebraska withdraw from the compact.

Source:Laws 2018, LB1034, § 22.    


Cross References

38-1219. Department; additional rules and regulations.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall adopt and promulgate rules and regulations necessary to:

(1) Administer the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act;

(2) Establish procedures and requirements for applications for licensure, renewal, and reinstatement in any of the licensure classifications created pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act;

(3) Provide for the inspection, review, and termination of approval of training agencies. All training for licensure shall be provided through an approved training agency; and

(4) Provide for the inspection, review, and termination of basic life support emergency medical services and advanced life support emergency medical services.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 503;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 15;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 23.    


38-1220. Act; exemptions.

The following are exempt from the licensing requirements of the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act:

(1) The occasional use of a vehicle or aircraft not designated as an ambulance and not ordinarily used in transporting patients or operating emergency care, rescue, or resuscitation services;

(2) Vehicles or aircraft rendering services as an ambulance in case of a major catastrophe or emergency when licensed ambulances based in the localities of the catastrophe or emergency are incapable of rendering the services required;

(3) Ambulances from another state which are operated from a location or headquarters outside of this state in order to transport patients across state lines, but no such ambulance shall be used to pick up patients within this state for transportation to locations within this state except in case of an emergency;

(4) Ambulances or emergency vehicles owned and operated by an agency of the United States Government and the personnel of such agency;

(5) Except for the provisions of section 38-1232, physicians, physician assistants, registered nurses, or advanced practice registered nurses, who hold current Nebraska licenses and are exclusively engaged in the practice of their respective professions;

(6) Persons authorized to perform emergency care in other states when incidentally working in Nebraska in response to an emergency situation; and

(7) Students under the supervision of (a) a licensed emergency care provider performing emergency medical services that are an integral part of the training provided by an approved training agency or (b) an organization accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs for the level of training the student is completing.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 20;    Laws 2000, LB 1115, § 76;    Laws 2005, LB 256, § 94;    R.S.Supp.,2006, § 71-5191; Laws 2007, LB463, § 504;    Laws 2019, LB135, § 1;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 32.    


38-1221. License; requirements.

To be eligible for a license under the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act, an individual shall have attained the age of eighteen years and met the requirements established in accordance with section 38-1217.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 505;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 16;    Laws 2016, LB722, § 11;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 24.    


Cross References

38-1222. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing activities under the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2003, LB 242, § 129;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5181.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 506.    


38-1223. Physician medical director; required.

Each licensed emergency medical service shall have a physician medical director.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 12;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5183; Laws 2007, LB463, § 507.    


38-1224. Duties and activities authorized; limitations.

(1) An emergency care provider other than an emergency medical responder may not assume the duties incident to the title or practice the skills of an emergency care provider unless he or she is acting under the supervision of a licensed health care practitioner.

(2) An emergency care provider may only practice the skills he or she is authorized to employ and which are covered by the license issued to such provider pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act or as authorized pursuant to the EMS Personnel Licensure Interstate Compact.

(3) A registered nurse may provide for the direction of an emergency care provider in any setting other than an emergency medical service.

(4) For purposes of this section, licensed health care practitioner means (a) a physician medical director or physician surrogate for purposes of supervision of an emergency care provider for an emergency medical service or (b) a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse for purposes of supervision of an emergency care provider in a setting other than an emergency medical service.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 13;    Laws 1998, LB 1073, § 147;    Laws 2002, LB 1033, § 2;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5184; Laws 2007, LB463, § 508;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 17;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 25;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 33.    


Cross References

38-1225. Patient data; confidentiality; immunity.

(1) No patient data received or recorded by an emergency medical service or an emergency care provider shall be divulged, made public, or released by an emergency medical service or an emergency care provider, except that patient data may be released (a) for purposes of treatment, payment, and other health care operations as defined and permitted under the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as such act existed on January 1, 2024, (b) as required by section 38-1238, or (c) as otherwise permitted by law. Such data shall be provided to the department for public health purposes pursuant to rules and regulations of the department. For purposes of this section, patient data means any data received or recorded as part of the records maintenance requirements of the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act.

(2) Patient data received by the department shall be confidential with release only (a) in aggregate data reports created by the department on a periodic basis or at the request of an individual, (b) as case-specific data to approved researchers for specific research projects, (c) as protected health information to a public health authority, as such terms are defined under the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as such act existed on January 1, 2024, and (d) as protected health information, as defined under the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as such act existed on January 1, 2024, to an emergency medical service, to an emergency care provider, or to a licensed health care facility for purposes of treatment. A record may be shared with the emergency medical service or emergency care provider that reported that specific record. Approved researchers shall maintain the confidentiality of the data, and researchers shall be approved in the same manner as described in section 81-666. Aggregate reports shall be public documents.

(3) No civil or criminal liability of any kind or character for damages or other relief or penalty shall arise or be enforced against any person or organization by reason of having provided patient data pursuant to this section.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 14;    Laws 2003, LB 667, § 11;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5185; Laws 2007, LB185, § 42;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 509;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 26;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 34;    Laws 2024, LB1355, § 2.    
Operative Date: April 17, 2024


38-1226. Ambulance; transportation requirements.

No ambulance shall transport any patient upon any street, road, highway, airspace, or public way in the State of Nebraska unless such ambulance, when so transporting patients, is occupied by at least one licensed emergency care provider. Such requirement shall be met if any of the individuals providing the service is a licensed physician, registered nurse, or licensed physician assistant functioning within the scope of practice of his or her license.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5186; Laws 2007, LB463, § 510;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 35.    


38-1227. Motor vehicle ambulance; driver privileges.

The driver of a licensed motor vehicle ambulance who holds a valid driver's license issued by the state of his or her residence may exercise the privileges set forth in Nebraska statutes relating to emergency vehicles when responding to an emergency call or while transporting a patient.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 16;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5187; Laws 2007, LB463, § 511.    


38-1228. Department; waive rule, regulation, or standard; when.

The department, with the approval of the board, may, whenever it deems appropriate, waive any rule, regulation, or standard relating to the licensure of emergency medical services or emergency care providers when the lack of a licensed emergency medical service in a municipality or other area will create an undue hardship in the municipality or other area in meeting the emergency medical service needs of the residents thereof.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 17;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5188; Laws 2007, LB463, § 512;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 36.    


38-1229. License; person on national registry.

The department may issue a license to any individual who has a current certificate from the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 18;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5189; Laws 2007, LB463, § 513;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 27.    


38-1230. License; sale, transfer, or assignment; prohibited.

A license issued under the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act shall not be sold, transferred, or assigned by the holder. Any change of ownership of an emergency medical service requires a new application and a new license.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 19;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5190; Laws 2007, LB463, § 514.    


38-1231. Person objecting to treatment; effect.

The Emergency Medical Services Practice Act or the rules or regulations shall not be construed to authorize or require giving any medical treatment to a person who objects to such treatment on religious or other grounds or to authorize the transportation of such person to a medical facility.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 22;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5193; Laws 2007, LB463, § 515.    


38-1232. Individual liability.

(1) No emergency care provider, physician assistant, registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse who provides public emergency care shall be liable in any civil action to respond in damages as a result of his or her acts of commission or omission arising out of and in the course of his or her rendering in good faith any such care. Nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to grant any such immunity for liability arising out of the operation of any motor vehicle, aircraft, or boat or while such person was impaired by alcoholic liquor or any controlled substance enumerated in section 28-405 in connection with such care, nor shall immunity apply to any person causing damage or injury by his or her willful, wanton, or grossly negligent act of commission or omission.

(2) No qualified physician or qualified physician surrogate who gives orders, either orally or by communication equipment, to any emergency care provider at the scene of an emergency, no emergency care provider following such orders within the limits of his or her licensure, and no emergency care provider trainee in an approved training program following such orders, shall be liable civilly or criminally by reason of having issued or followed such orders but shall be subject to the rules of law applicable to negligence.

(3) No physician medical director shall incur any liability by reason of his or her use of any unmodified protocol, standing order, operating procedure, or guideline provided by the board pursuant to subdivision (9) of section 38-1217.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 23;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5194; Laws 2007, LB463, § 516;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 18;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 28;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 37.    


38-1233. Emergency care provider; liability relating to consent.

No emergency care provider shall be subject to civil liability based solely upon failure to obtain consent in rendering emergency medical, surgical, hospital, or health services to any individual regardless of age when the patient is unable to give his or her consent for any reason and there is no other person reasonably available who is legally authorized to consent to the providing of such care.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 24;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5195; Laws 2007, LB463, § 517;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 38.    


38-1234. Emergency care provider; liability within scope of practice.

No act of commission or omission of any emergency care provider while rendering emergency medical care within the limits of his or her licensure or status as a trainee to a person who is deemed by the provider to be in immediate danger of injury or loss of life shall impose any liability on any other person, and this section shall not relieve the emergency care provider from personal liability, if any.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 25;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5196; Laws 2007, LB463, § 518;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 39.    


38-1235. Department; accept gifts.

The department may accept from any person, in the name of and for the state, services, equipment, supplies, materials, or funds by way of bequest, gift, or grant for the purposes of promoting emergency medical care. Any such funds received shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for credit to the Health and Human Services Cash Fund.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 26;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5197; Laws 2007, LB296, § 604;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 519.    


38-1236. Act; construction with other laws.

The provisions of the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act shall not be construed to supersede, limit, or otherwise affect the state emergency management laws or any interstate civil defense compact participated in by the State of Nebraska dealing with the licenses for professional, mechanical, or other skills of persons performing emergency management functions.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 27;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5198; Laws 2007, LB463, § 520.    


38-1237. Prohibited acts.

It shall be unlawful for any person who has not been licensed pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services Practice Act or authorized pursuant to the EMS Personnel Licensure Interstate Compact to hold himself or herself out as an emergency care provider, to use any other term to indicate or imply that he or she is an emergency care provider, or to act as such a provider without a license therefor. It shall be unlawful for any person to operate a training agency for the initial training or renewal or reinstatement of licensure of emergency care providers unless the training agency is approved pursuant to rules and regulations of the department. It shall be unlawful for any person to operate an emergency medical service unless such service is licensed.

Source:Laws 1997, LB 138, § 28;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-5199; Laws 2007, LB463, § 521;    Laws 2018, LB1034, § 29;    Laws 2020, LB1002, § 40.    


Cross References

38-1238. Overdose; emergency medical service; report; department; report; prohibited acts.

(1) An emergency medical service that treats and releases, or transports to a medical facility, an individual experiencing a suspected overdose or an actual overdose shall report the incident to the department. A report of an overdose made under this section shall include the information required by the department for occurrences requiring a response to perceived individual need for medical care.

(2) An emergency medical service that reports an overdose under this section shall make best efforts to submit the report within seventy-two hours after responding to the incident.

(3) When the department receives a report pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, it shall report such information using the Washington/Baltimore High Intensity Drug Trafficking Area Overdose Mapping and Application Program or other similar secure access information technology platform.

(4) Overdose information reported pursuant to subsection (1) or (3) of this section shall not be (a) used for a criminal investigation or prosecution or (b) obtained by a law enforcement officer as part of a criminal investigation or prosecution.

Source:Laws 2024, LB1355, § 3.    
Operative Date: April 17, 2024


38-1239. Law enforcement canine; transportation and emergency medical care; authorized, when; immune from liability.

(1) For purposes of this section, law enforcement canine means any canine that is owned or employed in the service of any state or local law enforcement agency, the Department of Correctional Services, any local fire department, or the State Fire Marshal for the purpose of aiding in the detection of criminal activity, flammable materials, or missing persons; the enforcement of laws; the investigation of fires; or the apprehension of criminal offenders.

(2) An emergency medical service validly licensed for emergency transport may transport a law enforcement canine injured in the line of duty to a veterinary clinic or similar facility if there is no person requiring medical attention or transport at that time.

(3) An emergency care provider may provide emergency medical care to a law enforcement canine injured in the line of duty while at the scene of an emergency or while a law enforcement canine is being transported to a veterinary clinic or similar facility if there is no person requiring medical attention or transport at that time.

(4) An emergency care provider who acts in good faith to provide emergency medical care to an injured law enforcement canine pursuant to subsection (2) or (3) of this section shall be immune from criminal or civil liability.

(5) The department may adopt and promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this section.

Source:Laws 2024, LB910, § 2.    
Operative Date: July 1, 2025


38-1301. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1301 to 38-1315 shall be known and may be cited as the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 522.    


38-1302. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1303 to 38-1306 apply.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 2, p. 1279; Laws 1989, LB 344, § 27;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 38; Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 666;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 116;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3702; Laws 2007, LB296, § 578;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 523.    


38-1303. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Registered Environmental Health Specialists.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 524.    


38-1304. Environmental health specialist, defined.

Environmental health specialist means a person who by education and experience in the physical, biological, and sanitary sciences is qualified to carry out educational, investigational, and technical duties in the field of environmental sanitation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 525.    


38-1305. Provisional environmental health specialist, defined.

Provisional environmental health specialist means a person who is qualified by education but does not have at least two full years of experience in the field of environmental sanitation and is certified in accordance with the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 526.    


38-1306. Registered environmental health specialist, defined.

Registered environmental health specialist means a person who has the educational requirements and has had experience in the field of environmental sanitation required by section 38-1308 and is certified in accordance with the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 527.    


38-1307. Board; members; qualifications; terms.

The board shall consist of six members. One member shall be a public member who meets the requirements of section 38-165. Each of the other members shall have been engaged in environmental health for at least ten years, shall have had responsible charge of work for at least five years at the time of his or her appointment, and shall be a registered environmental health specialist. At the expiration of the three-year terms of the members serving on December 1, 2008, successors shall be appointed for five-year terms.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 6, p. 1281; Laws 1969, c. 578, § 1, p. 2326; Laws 1981, LB 204, § 127;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 49;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 43; Laws 1993, LB 375, § 4;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 46;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 667;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3706; Laws 2007, LB296, § 579;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 528.    


38-1308. Certification; qualifications; exception; term.

A person shall be eligible for certification as an environmental health specialist if he or she has graduated with a baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited college or university, has satisfactorily completed at least forty-five quarter hours or thirty semester hours of academic work in the basic natural sciences, has been employed full time as an environmental health specialist for a period not less than two years, and has passed an examination approved by the board, except that a person holding a degree higher than a baccalaureate degree who has satisfactorily completed at least forty-five quarter hours or thirty semester hours of academic work in the basic natural sciences may qualify when employed as an environmental health specialist for a period of not less than one year.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 3, p. 1279; Laws 1989, LB 344, § 28;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 39; Laws 1997, LB 752, § 182;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 117;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3703; Laws 2007, LB463, § 529.    


Cross References

38-1309. Provisional environmental health specialist.

Any person meeting the educational qualifications of section 38-1308 but who does not meet the experience requirements of such section may make application for certification as a provisional environmental health specialist.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 4, p. 1280; Laws 1989, LB 344, § 29;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 40; Laws 2003, LB 242, § 118;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3704; Laws 2007, LB463, § 530.    


38-1310. Registered environmental health specialist; provisional environmental health specialist; certification; term; renewal; continuing competency requirements.

(1) Certification as a registered environmental health specialist shall expire biennially. Certification as a provisional environmental health specialist shall be valid for one year and may be renewed for two additional one-year periods. In no case shall certification for a provisional environmental health specialist exceed a three-year period.

(2) Each registered environmental health specialist in active practice in the state shall complete continuing competency activities as approved by the board and adopted and promulgated by the department in rules and regulations as a prerequisite for the registrant's next subsequent biennial renewal. Continuing education is sufficient to meet continuing competency requirements. The requirements may also include, but not be limited to, one or more of the continuing competency activities listed in section 38-145 which a registered environmental health specialist may select as an alternative to continuing education.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 10, p. 1283; Laws 1969, c. 578, § 4, p. 2328; Laws 1983, LB 542, § 3;    Laws 1986, LB 926, § 61;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 145;    Laws 1991, LB 703, § 47; Laws 1994, LB 1210, § 122;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 49;    Laws 1997, LB 307, § 189;    Laws 2002, LB 1021, § 80;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 121;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3710; Laws 2007, LB463, § 531.    


38-1311. Registered environmental health specialist; application for certification; continuing competency requirements.

An applicant for certification as a registered environmental health specialist who has met the education and examination requirements in section 38-1308, who passed the examination more than three years prior to the time of application for certification, and who is not practicing at the time of application for certification shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for certification completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 532.    


38-1312. Registered environmental health specialist; reciprocity; continuing competency requirements; military spouse; temporary certification.

(1) An applicant for certification as a registered environmental health specialist who has met the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 for certification based on a credential in another jurisdiction but is not practicing at the time of application for certification shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for certification completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for temporary certification as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 533;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 50.    


38-1313. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing under the Environmental Health Specialists Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 534.    


38-1314. Title or abbreviation; use; when.

Only a person who holds a valid current certificate for use in this state shall have the right and privilege of using the title Registered Environmental Health Specialist and to use the abbreviation R.E.H.S. after his or her name.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 13, p. 1285; Laws 1991, LB 703, § 48; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3713; Laws 2007, LB463, § 535.    


38-1315. Certified environmental health specialist; misrepresentation; unlawful.

It shall be unlawful for any person to represent himself or herself as a registered environmental health specialist without being duly certified and the holder of a currently valid certificate issued by the department. An individual holding a certificate of registration as a registered environmental health specialist on December 1, 2008, shall be deemed to be certified as a registered environmental health specialist on such date. An individual holding a certificate of registration as a trainee on December 1, 2008, shall be deemed to be certified as a provisional environmental health specialist on such date.

Source:Laws 1963, c. 400, § 14, p. 1285; Laws 1991, LB 703, § 49; R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-3714; Laws 2007, LB463, § 536.    


38-1401. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1401 to 38-1428 shall be known and may be cited as the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 537.    


38-1402. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1403 to 38-1413 apply.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 92, p. 479; C.S.1929, § 71-1301; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 355; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1301; R.S.1943, § 71-194; Laws 1957, c. 293, § 1, p. 1052; R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-194; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 13;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 557;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 152;    Laws 2003, LB 95, § 35;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1301; Laws 2007, LB296, § 465;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 538.    


38-1403. Accredited school of mortuary science, defined.

Accredited school of mortuary science means a school of the same type as those rated Class A by the Conference of Funeral Service Examining Boards of the United States, Inc., approved by the board.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 539.    


38-1404. Apprentice, defined.

Apprentice means a person registered with the department as an apprentice who is completing a twelve-month apprenticeship under the supervision of a licensed funeral director and embalmer practicing in the State of Nebraska. The licensed funeral director and embalmer is responsible for all funeral assists and embalmings completed by the apprentice.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 540.    


38-1405. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Funeral Directing and Embalming.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 541.    


38-1406. Branch establishment, defined.

Branch establishment means a place of business situated at a specific street address or location which is a subsidiary of a licensed funeral establishment, which contains a casket display room, a viewing area, or an area for conducting funeral services, or all of them, and where any portion of the funeral service or arrangements for the disposition of a dead human body is conducted.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 542.    


38-1407. Casket, defined.

Casket means a receptacle for a dead human body and does not include vaults, lawn crypts, mausoleums, or other outside receptacles for caskets.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 543.    


38-1408. Crematory authority, defined.

Crematory authority means the legal entity subject to licensure by the department to maintain and operate a crematory and perform cremation.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 544.    


38-1409. Embalming, defined.

(1) Embalming means the practice of preparing a dead human body for burial or other final disposal by a licensed funeral director and embalmer or an apprentice, requesting and obtaining burial or removal permits, or assuming any of the other duties incident to the practice of embalming.

(2) Any person who publicly professes to be a funeral director and embalmer or an apprentice is deemed to be practicing embalming.

(3) The performance of the following acts is also deemed to be the practice of embalming: (a) The disinfection and preservation of dead human beings, entire or in part; and (b) the attempted disinfection and preservation thereof by the use or application of chemical substances, fluids, or gases ordinarily used, prepared, or intended for such purposes, either by outward application of such chemical substances, fluids, or gases on the body or by introducing them into the body, by vascular or hypodermic injection, or by direct introduction into the organs or cavities.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 545.    


38-1410. Funeral directing, defined.

Funeral directing means (1) counseling families or next of kin in regard to the conduct of a funeral service for a dead human body for burial, disposition, or cremation or directing or supervising burial, disposition, or cremation of dead human bodies, (2) providing for or maintaining a funeral establishment, or (3) the act of representing oneself as or using in connection with one's name the title of funeral director, mortician, or any other title implying that he or she is engaged in the business of funeral directing.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 546.    


38-1411. Funeral establishment, defined.

Funeral establishment means a place of business situated at a specific street address or location devoted to the care and preparation of dead human bodies for burial, disposition, or cremation or to conducting or arranging funeral services for dead human bodies.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 547.    


38-1412. Licensure examination, defined.

Licensure examination means a national standardized examination, the state jurisprudence examination, and the vital statistic forms examination.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 548.    


38-1413. Supervision, defined.

Supervision means the direct oversight or the easy availability of the supervising funeral director and embalmer. The first twenty-five funeral assists and embalmings shall be completed under direct onsite supervision of the supervising funeral director and embalmer.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 549.    


38-1414. Funeral directing and embalming; license; requirements.

(1) The department shall issue a single license to practice funeral directing and embalming to applicants who meet the requirements of this section. An applicant for a license as a funeral director and embalmer shall:

(a) Present satisfactory proof that the applicant has earned the equivalent of forty semester hours of college credit in addition to a full course of instruction in an accredited school of mortuary science. Such hours shall include the equivalent of (i) six semester hours of English, (ii) twelve semester hours of business, (iii) four semester hours of chemistry, (iv) twelve semester hours of a biological science relating to the human body, and (v) six semester hours of psychology or counseling; and

(b) Present proof to the department that he or she has completed the following training:

(i) A full course of instruction in an accredited school of mortuary science;

(ii) A twelve-month apprenticeship under the supervision of a licensed funeral director and embalmer practicing in the State of Nebraska, which apprenticeship shall consist of arterially embalming twenty-five bodies and assisting with twenty-five funerals; and

(iii) Successful completion of the licensure examination approved by the board.

(2) Any person holding a valid license as an embalmer on January 1, 1994, may continue to provide services as an embalmer after such date. Upon expiration of such valid license, the person may apply for renewal thereof, and the department shall renew such license to practice embalming.

(3) Any person holding a valid license as a funeral director on January 1, 1994, may continue to provide services as a funeral director after such date. Upon expiration of such valid license, the person may apply for renewal thereof, and the department shall renew such license to practice funeral directing.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 93, p. 480; C.S.1929, § 71-1302; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 355; Laws 1937, c. 155, § 1, p. 612; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1302; R.S.1943, § 71-195; Laws 1955, c. 271, § 1, p. 852; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 43;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 19;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 35;    R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-195; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 14;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1302; Laws 2007, LB463, § 550;    Laws 2022, LB704, § 1.    


Cross References

38-1415. Examinations; requirements.

When the applicant has satisfied the department that he or she either has completed a full course of instruction in an accredited school of mortuary science or has completed all but the final semester of such course, the applicant shall be eligible to take the national standardized examination. The applicant shall pass such examination before beginning his or her twelve-month apprenticeship or the final six months thereof. When the applicant has satisfied the department that he or she has the qualifications specified in section 38-1416, he or she shall be eligible to take the state jurisprudence and vital statistic forms examination. A grade of seventy-five or above on each part of the licensure examination shall be a passing grade.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 94, p. 480; C.S.1929, § 71-1303; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 356; Laws 1937, c. 155, § 2, p. 613; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1303; R.S.1943, § 71-196; Laws 1955, c. 271, § 2, p. 853; R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-196; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 15;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1303; Laws 2007, LB463, § 551.    


38-1416. Apprenticeship; apprentice license; examination.

(1) Before beginning an apprenticeship, an applicant shall apply for an apprentice license. The applicant shall show that he or she has completed twenty of the forty hours required in subdivision (1)(a) of section 38-1414. The applicant may complete the twelve-month apprenticeship in either a split apprenticeship or a full apprenticeship as provided in this section.

(2) A split apprenticeship shall be completed in the following manner:

(a) Application for an apprentice license to complete a six-month apprenticeship prior to or while attending an accredited school of mortuary science, which license shall be valid for six months from the date of issuance and shall not be extended by the board. The apprenticeship shall be completed over a continuous six-month period;

(b) Successful completion of a full course of study in an accredited school of mortuary science;

(c) Successful passage of the national standardized examination; and

(d) Application for an apprentice license to complete the final six-month apprenticeship, which license shall be valid for six months from the date of issuance and shall not be extended by the board. The apprenticeship shall be completed over a continuous six-month period.

(3) A full apprenticeship shall be completed in the following manner:

(a) Successful completion of a full course of study in an accredited school of mortuary science;

(b) Successful passage of the national standardized examination; and

(c) Application for an apprentice license to complete a twelve-month apprenticeship. This license shall be valid for twelve months from the date of issuance and shall not be extended by the board. The apprenticeship shall be completed over a continuous twelve-month period.

(4) An individual registered as an apprentice on December 1, 2008, shall be deemed to be licensed as an apprentice for the term of the apprenticeship on such date.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 96, p. 481; C.S.1929, § 71-1305; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 357; Laws 1937, c. 155, § 3, p. 613; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1305; R.S.1943, § 71-198; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 44;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 20;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 36;    R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-198; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 16;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 97;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1304; Laws 2007, LB463, § 552;    Laws 2022, LB704, § 2;    Laws 2023, LB227, § 23.    


Cross References

38-1417. Teaching and demonstration; use of dead human bodies.

The board shall have the privileges extended to them for the use of bodies for dissection, demonstrating, and teaching under the requirements of the State Anatomical Board for the distribution and delivery of dead human bodies.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 97, p. 481; C.S.1929, § 71-1306; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 357; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1306; R.S.1943, § 71-199; R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-199; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 17;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 153;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1305; Laws 2007, LB463, § 553.    


Cross References

38-1418. Violations; evidence.

The finding of chemical substances, fluids, or gases ordinarily used in embalming or any trace thereof in a dead human body, the use of which is prohibited except by a licensed funeral director and embalmer, or the placing thereof upon a dead human body by other than a licensed funeral director and embalmer shall constitute prima facie evidence of the violation of the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1927, c. 167, § 98, p. 481; C.S.1929, § 71-1307; Laws 1931, c. 123, § 1, p. 357; C.S.Supp.,1941, § 71-1307; R.S.1943, § 71-1,100; R.S.1943, (1990), § 71-1,100; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 18;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1306; Laws 2007, LB463, § 554.    


38-1419. Funeral establishment; qualifications; relocation; change of manager; change of name.

(1) In order for a funeral establishment to be licensed, it shall employ as its manager a licensed funeral director and embalmer who shall be responsible for all transactions conducted in the funeral establishment, except that any person holding a valid license as a funeral director may serve as a manager of a funeral establishment. The manager shall maintain and operate the funeral establishment in accordance with all laws, rules, and regulations relating thereto.

(2) If the applicant for a funeral establishment license proposes to operate more than one establishment, a separate application and fee shall be required for each location.

(3) A funeral establishment desiring to relocate shall make application to the department at least thirty days prior to the designated date of such change in location.

(4) A funeral establishment desiring to change its manager shall make application to the department at least fifteen days prior to the designated date of such change, except that in the case of death of a manager, the application shall be made immediately following such death. No license shall be issued under this subsection by the department until the original license has been surrendered.

(5) A funeral establishment desiring to change its name shall request such change to the department at least thirty days prior to the designated change in name.

Source:Laws 1957, c. 295, § 3, p. 1060; Laws 1973, LB 515, § 15;    Laws 1980, LB 94, § 6; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 49;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 37;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 61; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 20;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 98;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1327; Laws 2007, LB463, § 555.    


38-1420. Branch establishment; application for license; qualifications; relocation; change of manager; change of name.

(1) If the applicant for a branch establishment license proposes to operate more than one branch establishment, a separate application and fee shall be required for each location.

(2) A branch establishment desiring to relocate shall make application to the department at least thirty days prior to the designated date of such change in location.

(3) A branch establishment desiring to change its manager shall make application to the department at least fifteen days prior to the designated date of such change, except that in the case of death of the manager, the establishment shall make application immediately after such death. No license shall be issued by the department under this subsection until the original license has been surrendered.

(4) A branch establishment desiring to change its name shall apply to the department at least thirty days prior to the designated change in name.

Source:Laws 1993, LB 187, § 21;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 99;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1327.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 556.    


38-1421. Reciprocity; military spouse; temporary license.

The department, with the recommendation of the board, may issue a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction to an individual who meets the requirements of the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act or substantially equivalent requirements as determined by the department, with the recommendation of the board. An applicant for licensure under the act who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 557;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 51.    


38-1422. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing under the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 558.    


38-1423. Prohibited acts.

Any person, partnership, limited liability company, firm, corporation, association, or other organization which (1) without having complied with the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act and without having first obtained a license (a) engages directly or indirectly in the business of funeral directing and embalming, (b) holds himself, herself, or itself out to the public as a funeral director and embalmer, or (c) performs or attempts to perform any of the services of a funeral establishment or branch establishment or of a funeral director and embalmer relating to the disposition of dead human bodies or (2) continues to perform such services after the license has expired or has been revoked or suspended shall be dealt with in the same manner as outlined in section 38-1,118. Each day so engaged in such business shall constitute and be deemed a separate offense.

Source:Laws 1957, c. 295, § 7, p. 1062; Laws 1973, LB 515, § 16;    Laws 1977, LB 39, § 158;    Laws 1980, LB 94, § 9; Laws 1986, LB 926, § 50;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 101;    Laws 1991, LB 10, § 5;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 62; Laws 1993, LB 121, § 423;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 23;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 33;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 100;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1331; Laws 2007, LB463, § 559.    


38-1424. Funeral directors and embalmers and funeral establishments; prohibited acts; section, how construed.

(1) In addition to the grounds for disciplinary action found in sections 38-178 and 38-179, a credential issued under the Funeral Directing and Embalming Practice Act may be denied, refused renewal, limited, revoked, or suspended or have other disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-196 when the applicant or credential holder is found guilty of any of the following acts or offenses:

(a) Solicitation of dead human bodies by the credential holder or his or her agents, assistants, or employees, either prior to or following death;

(b) The purchasing of funeral or embalming engagements or the payment of a commission either directly or indirectly or offer of payment of such commission to any agent, assistant, or employee for the purpose of securing business;

(c) Using indecent, profane, or obscene language in the presence of a dead human body or within the immediate presence or hearing of the family, relatives, or friends of the deceased prior to the burial of the deceased;

(d) Soliciting or accepting any remuneration, commission, bonus, or rebate in consideration of the recommending or causing a dead human body to be placed in any crematory, mausoleum, or cemetery;

(e) Using any casket or part thereof which has previously been used as a receptacle for, or in connection with, the shipment, burial, or other disposition of a dead human body without first identifying such item as used;

(f) Violations of any state law, municipal ordinance, or rule or regulation of the department or other body having regulatory powers, relating to the handling, custody, care, or transportation of dead human bodies;

(g) Refusal to surrender promptly the custody of a dead human body upon request of a person or persons lawfully entitled to the custody thereof; or

(h) Taking undue advantage of a patron or patrons, or being found guilty of fraud, or misrepresentation in the selling of merchandise or service to patrons.

(2) An applicant or a credential holder shall be subject to the penalty provisions of this section if found guilty of any of the following:

(a) Paying, directly or indirectly, any money or other thing of value as a commission or gratuity for the securing of business;

(b) The buying of a business of any person, firm, or corporation, or the paying of a commission to any person, firm, or corporation or to any hospital or any institution where death occurs or to any hospital superintendent, nurse, intern, or other employee, whether directly or indirectly; or

(c) Willful malpractice.

(3) Any funeral director and embalmer who commits any of the acts or things prohibited by this section or otherwise violates any of the provisions thereof shall be guilty of a Class II misdemeanor.

(4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a licensed funeral director and embalmer from engaging in sales of funeral goods or services under the Burial Pre-Need Sale Act.

Source:Laws 1957, c. 295, § 9, p. 1063; Laws 1963, c. 411, § 1, p. 1331; Laws 1980, LB 94, § 11; Laws 1987, LB 473, § 40;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 103;    Laws 1993, LB 187, § 25;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1333; Laws 2007, LB463, § 560.    


Cross References

38-1425. Deceased persons; funeral and disposition arrangements; liability.

(1) Any person signing a funeral service agreement, a cremation authorization form, or any other authorization for disposition shall be deemed to warrant the truthfulness of any facts set forth in such agreement, form, or authorization, including the identity of the decedent whose remains are to be buried, cremated, or otherwise disposed of and the person's right of disposition. A funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority shall have the right to rely on such agreement, form, or authorization and shall have the authority to carry out the instructions of the person or persons whom the funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority reasonably believes holds the right of disposition. No funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority shall have the responsibility to contact or to independently investigate the existence of any next-of-kin or relative of the decedent. If there is more than one person in a class equal in priority and the funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority has no knowledge of any objection by other members of such class, the funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority shall be entitled to rely on and act according to the instructions of the first such person in the class to make funeral and disposition arrangements so long as no other person in such class provides written notice of his or her objections to the funeral establishment, cemetery, or crematory authority, as the case may be.

(2) The liability for the reasonable cost of the final disposition of the remains of the decedent devolves jointly and severally upon all kin of the decedent in the same degree of kindred into which the right of disposition fell and upon the estate of the decedent and, in cases where a county board has the right to control disposition of the remains under subdivision (2)(j) of section 30-2223, upon the county in which the death occurred from funds available for such purpose.

(3) If the decedent died during active military service, as provided in 10 U.S.C. 1481 (a)(1) through (8), in any branch of the United States armed forces, United States reserve forces, or national guard, the person authorized by the decedent to direct disposition pursuant to section 564 of Public Law 109-163, as listed on the decedent's United States Department of Defense record of emergency data, DD Form 93, or its successor form, shall take priority over all other persons described in section 30-2223.

Source:Laws 1959, c. 325, § 1, p. 1186; Laws 1959, c. 326, § 1, p. 1189; Laws 1998, LB 1354, § 7;    Laws 1999, LB 46, § 5;    Laws 2003, LB 95, § 36;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1339; Laws 2007, LB463, § 561;    Laws 2013, LB420, § 1;    Laws 2014, LB998, § 9.    


Annotations

38-1426. Final disposition; instructions; remains of deceased person; disposition; liability.

(1) A decedent, prior to his or her death, may direct the preparation for the final disposition of his or her remains by written instructions as provided in sections 30-2223 and 38-1425. If such instructions are in a will or other written instrument, the decedent may direct that the whole or any part of such remains be given to a teaching institution, university, college, or legally licensed hospital, to the director, or to or for the use of any nonprofit blood bank, artery bank, eye bank, or other therapeutic service operated by any agency approved by the director under rules and regulations established by the director. The person or persons otherwise entitled to control the disposition of the remains under this section shall faithfully carry out the directions of the decedent.

(2) If such instructions are contained in a will or other written instrument, they shall be immediately carried out, regardless of the validity of the will in other respects or of the fact that the will may not be offered for or admitted to probate until a later date.

(3) This section shall be administered and construed to the end that such expressed instructions of any person shall be faithfully and promptly performed.

(4) A funeral director and embalmer, physician, or cemetery authority shall not be liable to any person or persons for carrying out such instructions of the decedent, and any teaching institution, university, college, or legally licensed hospital or the director shall not be liable to any person or persons for accepting the remains of any deceased person under a will or other written instrument as set forth in this section.

Source:Laws 1959, c. 325, § 2, p. 1187; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 30;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 559;    Laws 2003, LB 95, § 37;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1340; Laws 2007, LB296, § 467;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 562;    Laws 2014, LB998, § 10.    


38-1427. Autopsy; written authorization; removal of organs; when performed.

A written authorization for an autopsy given by the person listed in section 30-2223 having the right of disposition of the remains may, subject to section 23-1824 and when not inconsistent with any directions given by the decedent pursuant to section 38-1426, include authorization for the removal of any specifically named organ or organs for therapeutic or scientific purposes. Pursuant to any such written authorization, any structure or organ may be given to the director or to any other therapeutic service operated by any nonprofit agency approved by the director, including, but not limited to, a teaching institution, university, college, legally licensed hospital, nonprofit blood bank, nonprofit artery bank, nonprofit eye bank, or nationally recognized nonprofit hormone and pituitary program. The person or persons performing any autopsy shall do so within a reasonable time and without delay and shall not exceed the removal permission contained in such written authorization, and the remains shall not be significantly altered in external appearance nor shall any portion thereof be removed for purposes other than those expressly permitted in this section.

Source:Laws 1959, c. 325, § 3, p. 1188; Laws 1959, c. 326, § 2, p. 1189; Laws 1985, LB 130, § 1;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 560;    Laws 1999, LB 46, § 6;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1341; Laws 2007, LB296, § 468;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 563;    Laws 2014, LB998, § 11.    


38-1428. Funeral director and embalmer; principal services; statement of costs.

A written statement, signed by the funeral director and embalmer or legal representative, of all principal services and furnishings to be supplied by the funeral director and embalmer for the preparation and burial or cremation of the deceased, together with the actual cost of the services including the total actual costs, shall be given to the next of kin or other person responsible for the making of the funeral arrangements prior to the burial or disposition of the deceased. For purposes of this section principal services shall include, but not be limited to, the casket, outer receptacle, facilities and equipment, professional services, nonlocal transportation, clothing, an itemization of all cash advances, and sales tax. A copy of such statement, signed by the person to whom it was tendered, shall be retained in the records of the funeral director and embalmer for a period of at least two years.

Source:Laws 1980, LB 94, § 17; Laws 1993, LB 187, § 32;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1346; Laws 2007, LB463, § 564.    


38-1501. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1501 to 38-1518 shall be known and may be cited as the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 565;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 19.    


38-1502. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1503 to 38-1507 apply.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 1, p. 2903; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 1;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 50;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 148;    Laws 1996, LB 1044, § 681;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4701; Laws 2007, LB296, § 589;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 566;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 20.    


38-1503. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Hearing Instrument Specialists.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 567;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 21.    


38-1504. Hearing instrument, defined.

Hearing instrument means any wearable instrument or device designed for or offered for the purpose of aiding or compensating for impaired human hearing and any parts, attachments, or accessories, including earmold, but excluding batteries and cords.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 568;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 22.    


38-1505. Practice of fitting hearing instruments, defined.

Practice of fitting hearing instruments means the measurement of human hearing by means of an audiometer or by other means approved by the board solely for the purpose of making selections, adaptations, or sale of hearing instruments. The term also includes the making of impressions for earmolds. A dispenser, at the request of a physician or a member of related professions, may make audiograms for the professional's use in consultation with the hard-of-hearing.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 569;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 23.    


38-1506. Sell, sale, or dispense, defined.

Sell, sale, or dispense means any transfer of title or of the right to use by lease, bailment, or any other contract, excluding (1) wholesale transactions with distributors or dispensers and (2) distribution of hearing instruments by nonprofit service organizations at no cost to the recipient for the hearing instrument.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 570;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 24.    


38-1507. Temporary training license, defined.

Temporary training license means a hearing instrument specialist license issued while the applicant is in training to become a licensed hearing instrument specialist.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 571;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 25;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 52.    


38-1508. Board membership; qualifications.

The board shall consist of five professional members and one public member appointed pursuant to section 38-158. The members shall meet the requirements of sections 38-164 and 38-165. The professional members shall consist of three licensed hearing instrument specialists, one otolaryngologist, and one audiologist until one licensed hearing instrument specialist vacates his or her office or his or her term expires, whichever occurs first, at which time the professional members of the board shall consist of three licensed hearing instrument specialists, at least one of whom does not hold a license as an audiologist, one otolaryngologist, and one audiologist. At the expiration of the four-year terms of the members serving on December 1, 2008, successors shall be appointed for five-year terms.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 15, p. 2914; Laws 1981, LB 204, § 130;    Laws 1986, LB 701, § 12;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 160;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 81; Laws 1993, LB 375, § 6;    Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 52;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 173;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4715; Laws 2007, LB463, § 572;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 26.    


38-1509. Sale or fitting of hearing instruments; license required; exceptions.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no person shall engage in the sale of or practice of fitting hearing instruments or display a sign or in any other way advertise or represent himself or herself as a person who practices the fitting and sale or dispensing of hearing instruments unless he or she holds an unsuspended, unrevoked hearing instrument specialist license issued by the department as provided in the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act. A hearing instrument specialist license shall confer upon the holder the right to select, fit, and sell hearing instruments. A person holding a license issued under the act prior to August 30, 2009, may continue to practice under such license until it expires under the terms of the license.

(2) A licensed audiologist who maintains a practice pursuant to (a) licensure as an audiologist, or (b) a privilege to practice audiology under the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact, in which hearing instruments are regularly dispensed, or who intends to maintain such a practice, shall be exempt from the requirement to be licensed as a hearing instrument specialist.

(3) Nothing in the act shall prohibit a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, trust, association, or other like organization maintaining an established business address from engaging in the business of selling or offering for sale hearing instruments at retail without a license if it employs only properly licensed natural persons in the direct sale and fitting of such products.

(4) Nothing in the act shall prohibit the holder of a hearing instrument specialist license from the fitting and sale of wearable instruments or devices designed for or offered for the purpose of conservation or protection of hearing.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 2, p. 2904; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 2;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 149;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 79; Laws 1993, LB 121, § 438;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4702; Laws 2007, LB247, § 52;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 70;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 573;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 27;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 53;    Laws 2021, LB14, § 5.    


Cross References

38-1510. Applicability of act.

(1) The Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act is not intended to prevent any person from engaging in the practice of measuring human hearing for the purpose of selection of hearing instruments if such person or organization employing such person does not sell hearing instruments or the accessories thereto.

(2) The act shall not apply to a person who is a physician licensed to practice in this state, except that such physician shall not delegate the authority to fit and dispense hearing instruments unless the person to whom the authority is delegated is licensed as a hearing instrument specialist under the act.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 4, p. 2905; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 4;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 150;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4704; Laws 2007, LB463, § 574;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 28.    


38-1511. Sale; conditions.

(1) Any person who practices the fitting and sale of hearing instruments shall deliver to each person supplied with a hearing instrument a receipt which shall contain the licensee's signature and show his or her business address and the number of his or her certificate, together with specifications as to the make and model of the hearing instrument furnished, and clearly stating the full terms of sale. If a hearing instrument which is not new is sold, the receipt and the container thereof shall be clearly marked as used or reconditioned, whichever is applicable, with terms of guarantee, if any.

(2) Such receipt shall bear in no smaller type than the largest used in the body copy portion the following: The purchaser has been advised at the outset of his or her relationship with the hearing instrument specialist that any examination or representation made by a licensed hearing instrument specialist in connection with the fitting and selling of this hearing instrument is not an examination, diagnosis, or prescription by a person licensed to practice medicine in this state and therefor must not be regarded as medical opinion or advice.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 3, p. 2905; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 3;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4703; Laws 2007, LB463, § 575;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 29.    


38-1512. License; examination; conditions.

(1) Any person may obtain a hearing instrument specialist license under the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act by successfully passing a qualifying examination if the applicant:

(a) Is at least twenty-one years of age; and

(b) Has an education equivalent to a four-year course in an accredited high school.

(2) The qualifying examination shall consist of written and practical tests. The examination shall not be conducted in such a manner that college training is required in order to pass. Nothing in this examination shall imply that the applicant is required to possess the degree of medical competence normally expected of physicians.

(3) The department shall give examinations approved by the board. A minimum of two examinations shall be offered each calendar year.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 7, p. 2907; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 6;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 53;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 153;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4707; Laws 2007, LB247, § 53;    Laws 2007, LB247, § 71;    Laws 2007, LB463, § 576;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 30;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 54.    


Cross References

38-1513. Temporary training license; issuance; supervision; renewal.

(1) The department, with the recommendation of the board, shall issue a temporary training license to any person who has met the requirements for licensure as a hearing instrument specialist pursuant to subsection (1) of section 38-1512. Previous experience or a waiting period shall not be required to obtain a temporary training license.

(2) Any person who desires a temporary training license shall make application to the department. The temporary training license shall be issued for a period of one year. A person holding a valid license as a hearing instrument specialist shall be responsible for the supervision and training of such applicant and shall maintain adequate personal contact with him or her.

(3) If a person who holds a temporary training license under this section has not successfully passed the licensing examination within twelve months of the date of issuance of the temporary training license, the temporary training license may be renewed or reissued for a twelve-month period. In no case may a temporary training license be renewed or reissued more than once. A renewal or reissuance may take place any time after the expiration of the first twelve-month period.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 8, p. 2907; Laws 1973, LB 515, § 22;    Laws 1986, LB 701, § 7;    Laws 1987, LB 473, § 55;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 154;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 36; Laws 1997, LB 752, § 185;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 125;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4708; Laws 2007, LB463, § 577;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 31;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 55.    


38-1514. Qualifying examination; contents; purpose.

The qualifying examination provided in section 38-1512 shall be designed to demonstrate the applicant's adequate technical qualifications by:

(1) Tests of knowledge in the following areas as they pertain to the fitting and sale of hearing instruments:

(a) Basic physics of sound;

(b) The anatomy and physiology of the ear; and

(c) The function of hearing instruments; and

(2) Practical tests of proficiency in the following techniques as they pertain to the fitting of hearing instruments:

(a) Pure tone audiometry, including air conduction testing and bone conduction testing;

(b) Live voice or recorded voice speech audiometry;

(c) Masking when indicated;

(d) Recording and evaluation of audiograms and speech audiometry to determine proper selection and adaptation of a hearing instrument; and

(e) Taking earmold impressions.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 9, p. 2908; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 8;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4709; Laws 2007, LB463, § 578;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 32.    


38-1515. Applicant for licensure; continuing competency requirements.

An applicant for licensure as a hearing instrument specialist who has met the education and examination requirements in section 38-1512, who passed the examination more than three years prior to the time of application for licensure, and who is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 579;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 33.    


38-1516. Applicant for licensure; reciprocity; continuing competency requirements; military spouse; temporary license.

(1) An applicant for licensure as a hearing instrument specialist who has met the standards set by the board pursuant to section 38-126 for a license based on licensure in another jurisdiction but is not practicing at the time of application for licensure shall present proof satisfactory to the department that he or she has within the three years immediately preceding the application for licensure completed continuing competency requirements approved by the board pursuant to section 38-145.

(2) An applicant who is a military spouse may apply for a temporary license as provided in section 38-129.01.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 580;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 34;    Laws 2017, LB88, § 56.    


38-1517. Licensee; disciplinary action; additional grounds.

In addition to the grounds for disciplinary action found in sections 38-178 and 38-179, a credential issued under the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act may be denied, refused renewal, limited, revoked, or suspended or have other disciplinary measures taken against it in accordance with section 38-196 when the applicant or credential holder is found guilty of any of the following acts or offenses:

(1) Fitting and selling a hearing instrument to a child under the age of sixteen who has not been examined and cleared for hearing instrument use within a six-month period by an otolaryngologist without a signed waiver by the legal guardian. This subdivision shall not apply to the replacement with an identical model of any hearing instrument within one year of its purchase;

(2) Any other condition or acts which violate the Trade Practice Rules for the Hearing Aid Industry of the Federal Trade Commission or the Food and Drug Administration; or

(3) Violation of any provision of the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act.

Source:Laws 1969, c. 767, § 12, p. 2909; Laws 1986, LB 701, § 10;    Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 157;    Laws 1991, LB 456, § 37; Laws 1994, LB 1223, § 51;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4712; Laws 2007, LB463, § 581;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 35.    


38-1518. Fees.

The department shall establish and collect fees for credentialing activities under the Hearing Instrument Specialists Practice Act as provided in sections 38-151 to 38-157.

Source:Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 159;    Laws 1992, LB 1019, § 80; Laws 2003, LB 242, § 127;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-4714.01; Laws 2007, LB463, § 582;    Laws 2009, LB195, § 36.    


38-1601. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1602. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1603. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1604. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1605. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1606. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1607. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1608. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1609. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1610. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1611. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1612. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1613. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1614. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1615. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1616. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1617. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1618. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1619. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1620. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1621. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1622. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1623. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1624. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1625. Repealed. Laws 2017, LB88, § 96.

38-1701. Act, how cited.

Sections 38-1701 to 38-1725 shall be known and may be cited as the Massage Therapy Practice Act.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 608;    Laws 2019, LB244, § 1.    


38-1702. Definitions, where found.

For purposes of the Massage Therapy Practice Act and elsewhere in the Uniform Credentialing Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the definitions found in sections 38-1703 to 38-1707.01 apply.

Source:Laws 1955, c. 273, § 1, p. 861; Laws 1987, LB 473, § 42;    R.S.Supp.,1987, § 71-2701; Laws 1988, LB 1100, § 132;    Laws 1990, LB 1064, § 14;    Laws 1991, LB 10, § 2;    Laws 1993, LB 48, § 2;    Laws 1999, LB 828, § 142;    Laws 2003, LB 242, § 69;    R.S.1943, (2003), § 71-1,278; Laws 2007, LB463, § 609;    Laws 2019, LB244, § 2.    


38-1703. Approved massage therapy school, defined.

Approved massage therapy school means (1) one which is approved by the board, (2) one which requires for admission a diploma from an accredited high school or its equivalent, (3) one which has attached to its staff a regularly licensed physician and employs one or more competent massage therapists as instructors, and (4) one which has a minimum requirement of a continuous course of study and training of not less than one thousand hours distributed over a term of not less than nine months. Such study and training shall consist of one hundred hours of each of the following: Physiology; anatomy; massage; pathology; hydrotherapy; hygiene and practical demonstration; and health service management. The remaining three hundred hours shall be obtained in subject areas related to the clinical practice of massage therapy.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 610.    


38-1704. Board, defined.

Board means the Board of Massage Therapy.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 611.    


38-1705. Massage therapist, defined.

Massage therapist means a person licensed to practice massage therapy.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 612.    


38-1706. Massage therapy, defined.

Massage therapy means a health care service involving the physical, mechanical, or electrical manipulation of soft tissue for therapeutic purposes or to enhance wellness and may include the use of oil, salt glows, heat lamps, and hydrotherapy. Massage therapy does not include diagnosis or treatment or use of procedures for which a license to practice medicine or surgery, chiropractic, or podiatry is required nor the use of microwave diathermy, shortwave diathermy, ultrasound, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation, electrical stimulation of over thirty-five volts, neurological hyperstimulation, or spinal and joint adjustments.

Source:Laws 2007, LB463, § 613;    Laws 2024, LB78, § 1.    
Effective Date: July 19, 2024


38-1707. Massage therapy establishment, defined.

Massage therapy establishment means any duly licensed place in which a massage therapist practices his or her profession of massage therapy. Massage therapy establishment includes a mobile massage therapy esta